PMP Exam Preparation question answer knowledge areas

Integration Management Knowledge Area What is the sequence of processes in Integration knowledge area? A. develop preliminary project scope statement, develop project management plan, develop project charter, monitor and control project work, close project B. Develop project charter,develop preliminary project scope statement, develop project management plan, direct and manage project execution,monitor and control project work, integrated change control,project closure C. cost estimating,cost control,cost budgeting D. quality assurance,develop project management plan,quality control Answer : B In which process group(project phase) will develop project charter,develop preliminary project scope statement fit in? A.Initiation B. Planning C. Closing D. Executing Answer : A In which process group will develop project management plan fit in? A. Closing B. Execution C. Planning D. Monitoring and Controlling Answer : C In which process group will direct and manage project execution fit in? A. Planning B. Execution C. Closing D. Initiation Answer : B In which process group will monitor and control project and integrated change control fit in? A. Planning B. Closing C. Monitoring and controlling D. Execution Answer : C In which process group will close project fit in? A. Planning B. Execution C. Initiation D. Closing Answer : D What are the tools and techniques used in common across all the Integration knowledge area processes? A. PMIS,Project Management Methodology B. Expert Judgement,PMIS C. Stakeholder analysis D. Product Analysis Answer : A What are the inputs to develop project charter? A. Enterprise environmental factor,organisational process asset,contract(when applicble),contract statement of work(SOW) B. organisational process asset, project management plan C. Resource calendar D. Cost Baseline Answer : A What is the output of Develop project management plan? A. Project quality Management Plan B. Project Scope Management Plan C. Project Management plan D. Project scope statement,WBS Answer : C What is the output of Direct and Manage project execution? A. Project Management Plan B. Project Scope Management Plan C. Deliverables D. Project scope statement,WBS Answer : C What is the output of Integrated change control (ICC)? A. Project Management Plan B. Project Scope Management Plan C. Approved change requests,rejected change requests D. Project scope statement,WBS Answer : C What is the output of develop premilinary project statement? A. Project Management Plan B. Project Scope Management Plan C. Preliminary project statement D. Project scope statement,WBS Answer : C What is the tool of Develop project charter process? A. Project Management Plan B. Project Scope Management Plan C. Project selection method,project management methodology,expert judgement D. Project scope statement,WBS Answer : C What is the input to develop project management plan? A. Project Management Plan B. Project Scope Management Plan C. Project management processes D. Project scope statement,WBS Answer : C What is the input to direct and manage project execution? A. Project Management Plan B. Project Scope Management Plan C. Project charter D. Project scope statement,WBS Answer : A Scope Management What is the output of scope verification? A. Project Management Plan B. Project Scope Management Plan C. Accepted deliverables,requested changes,recommended corrective action D. Project scope statement,WBS Answer : C Time Management What is the output of Activity resource estimation? A. Project Management Plan B. Project Scope Management Plan C. Resource calendar D. Project scope statement,WBS Answer : C Cost Management What is the output of Cost Estimating? A. Project Management Plan B. Project Scope Management Plan C. Cost Management Plan (updates) D. Project scope statement,WBS Answer : C Quality Management What is the output of Quality planning? A. Project Management Plan B. Quality checklist,quality baseline C. Project Charter D. Project scope statement,WBS Answer : B HR (Human Resources)Management What is the output of Human resources planning? A. Project Management Plan B. Project Scope Management Plan C. Staffing Management Plan D. Project scope statement,WBS Answer : C Communication Management What is the output of Communication Planning? A. Project Management Plan B. Project Scope Management Plan C. Communication Management Plan D. Project scope statement,WBS Answer : C Risk Management What is the output of Risk identification? A. Project Management Plan B. Requested changes C. Risk register D. Project scope statement,WBS Answer : C Procurement Management What is the tool used in selecting sellers? A. Project Management Plan B. Project Scope Management Plan C. seller rating system D. Project scope statement,WBS Answer : C Ethics Professional & Social Responsibility Who is the authority to take care of violations relevant to PMP certification? A. Federal government B. CEO C. HR Manager D. PMI (Project Management Institute) Answer : D Project Management Processes What is the output of Select sellers? A. Project Management Plan B. Project Scope Management Plan C. Project Charter D. Contract Management Plan Answer : D What is the job title of the person who is primarily responsible for the quality of deliverables? A. The quality control inspector. B. The quality controller. C. The design engineer. D. The project manager. E. The quality manager. Answer: D Which of the following is NOT an essential regarding a project close-out? A. Documenting formal acceptance of the product. B. Documenting the final risk assessment. C. Documenting the lessons learned. D. Documenting the final project scope E. None of the above. Answer: B Which of the following is the distinguishing characteristic between the network diagram and the Gantt chart? A. Few resources B. Key milestones C. Critical dates D. Critical dependencies Answer: D Which of the following are indicative of duration estimates? A. How many hours a resource will work on an activity. B. When an activity is expected to start. C. How many work periods an activity is expected to last. D. When an activity is expected to finish. Answer: C Certain resources have been added to tasks on the critical path so as to reduce the project duration. As a result the plan should then be reviewed for the: A. Possible lag time on other paths. B. Resource assigned to other tasks on the critical path. C. The most time consuming task remaining in the plan. D. Emergence of a new critical path. Answer: D Under which of the following circumstances would project management is the NOT be the preferred management approach? A. Cross functional tasks. B. Unique operations. C. Product manufacturing environment. D. Time-constrained deliverables. Answer: C Which of the following should be done by the project manager upon completion of the project? A. Planning a turnover meeting. B. Obtaining a sign-off from the customer. C. Team celebration. D. Project evaluation. E. Performance evaluation of team members. Answer: B Which of the following is the MAIN reason for including incentive clauses in a contract? A. Reducing costs to the buyer. B. Controlling contractor costs. C. Aligning contractor and buyer goals. D. Reducing production costs. E. Reducing contractor risk. Answer: C In which of the following circumstances is it BEST to make use of the project management approach? (Choose all that apply.) A. Cross functional tasks. B. Unique operations. C. Product manufacturing environment. D. Time-constrained deliverables. E. Production-line environment. Answer: A, B, D Which of the following represents the pinnacle of Maslow's hierarchy of needs? A. Survival. B. Self-actualization. C. Safety. D. Esteem. E. Physiological satisfaction. Answer: B What would be the cost performance index if BCWP =350, ACWP = 400, and BCWS = 325? Note: Budgeted Cost of Work Performed (BCWP), Actual Cost of Work Performed (ACWP) and Budget Cost of Work Schedule (BCWS) A. 0.813 B. 1.078 C. 1.143 D. 0.875 Answer: D Which technique would you be using if you analyze which sequence of activities has the least amount of flexibility when you need to predict project duration? A. Critical path B. Dependency diagramming C. PERT D. Gantt chart E. Monte Carlo method Answer: A Taking the following table into account, where would corrective action be MOST effective when you make use of Pareto's Rule? Origin of Problem Percent of Problems Design 60 Development 15 Prototype 10 Testing 10 Fabrication 5 A. Development B. Prototype C. Fabrication D. Design E. Testing Answer: D Which of the following describes Fast Tracking? A. Circumventing loopholes. B. Developing workarounds for previous problems. C. Increased project risk. D. Getting people to work longer hours in overtime. E. Meeting schedule objectives by adding resources. Answer: C Which of the following are included in cost control? (Choose all that apply.) A. Informing stakeholders of changes. B. Preparing cost estimates. C. Recording appropriate changes to the cost baseline. D. Monitoring cost performance. Answer: A, C, D Which of the following statements depicts the key difference between contract close-out and administrative closure? A. Contract close-out formalizes project completion. B. Contract close-out includes product verification. C. Contract close-out includes updating records with final results. D. Administrative closure includes procurement audits. E. None of the above. Answer: B Which of the following factors are NOT included in cost control? A. Preparation of cost estimates. B. Informing stakeholders of changes. C. Monitoring cost performance. D. Recording appropriate changes to the cost baseline. Answer: A Where does comparing actual to baseline schedules, examining the statement of work, understanding cost overruns, and assessing risk all occur? A. Stakeholder meeting. B. Resource leveling activity. C. Project audit. D. Contract negotiation. Answer: C Which of the following is illustrated by a resource histogram? A. The expected requirements for critical path activities. B. The expected resource usage by time period. C. The resource assignments by work package. D. The resource assignments by activities. E. All of the above. Answer: B The "Cost of quality" project management concept includes ____? A. The costs involved when changes are made to the requirements B. The costs of ensuring that requirements are conformed to. C. The costs incurred when requirements are exceeded. D. The costs involved with quality control requirements. Answer: B Consider the following situation: The customer was given a monthly report that indicates zero schedule variance. One of the teams members are aware of at least one milestone that has not been achieved. This missed milestone will result in an overall delay in the project. Which of the following items were not reported on adequately? A. Critical path status B. Risk analysis C. Communication plan variance D. Resource management plan E. All of the above Answer: A Which of the following is NOT an indirect cost? A. Insurance costs. B. Payroll tax cost. C. Subcontract costs. D. Accounting support costs. Answer: C 1. The difference between a time estimate and a schedule is that the schedule is: a. Calendar Based b. Activity Based c. Project Based d. Product Based 2. Schedule Network Analysis can be done by any one of the following: a. Critical Path Method b. Schedule Compression c. Resource Leveling d. All of the Above 3. Critical Path is the ________ duration path through a network diagram and determines the ________ time to complete the project a. Shortest, Shortest b. Longest, Shortest c. Longest, Longest d. Shortest, Longest 4. Select the advantages of using a critical path for a project manager a. Helps project manager to determine where to focus his Project Management efforts b. Provides a vehicle for schedule compression c. Helps to determine which activities have float and therefore can be delayed without delaying the project d. All of the Above 5. Float is also referred to as: a. Lead b. Slack c. Lag d. None of the Above 6. The different types of float are: a. Total Float b. Free Float c. Project Float d. All of the Above 7. Please select one of the following that is applicable to Near Critical Path: a. Near Critical Path is farthest in duration to the critical path b. Near Critical Path can never become Critical path c. The closer in duration of the near critical path to the critical path, the project will might be risky d. None of the Above 8. ________ is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project end date or an intermediary milestone. a. Free Float b. Total Float c. Project Float d. Free Slack 9. ________ is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of its successor. a. Free Float b. Total Float c. Project Float d. Free Slack 10. ________ is the amount of time a project can be delayed without delaying the externally imposed project completion date required by the customer or management. a. Free Float b. Total Float c. Project Float d. Free Slack 11. Activities on the critical path have _____ float a. Positive b. Negative c. Fractional d. Zero 12. The formula for float is a. Float = Late Start – Early Start or Float = Late Finish – Early Finish b. Float = Early Start – Late Start or Float = Early Finish – Late Finish c. Float = Early Start – Early Finish or Float = Late Start – Late Finish d. Float = Late Finish – Early Start or Float = Early Finish – Late Start 13. The advantage of float in a project helps the project manager: a. To request more resources for the project from senior management b. To guarantee work for the project team member c. To better allocate resources in the project d. None of the Above 14. Calculate the float of Activity with the information given below: Early Start of Activity A = 4 weeks Late Finish of Activity A = 2 weeks a. 2 weeks b. -2 weeks c. 6 weeks d. The float cannot be calculated with the data given 15. Calculate the float of Activity with the information given below: Early Finish of Activity A = 4 weeks Late Start of Activity A = 2 weeks a. 2 weeks b. -2 weeks c. 6 weeks d. The float cannot be calculated with the data given 16. Calculate the float of Activity with the information given below: Early Start of Activity A = 2 weeks Late Start of Activity A = 4 weeks a. 2 weeks b. -2 weeks c. 6 weeks d. The float cannot be calculated with the data given 17. Calculate the float of Activity with the information given below: Early Finish of Activity A = 2 weeks Late Finish of Activity A = 4 weeks a. 2 weeks b. -2 weeks c. 6 weeks d. The float cannot be calculated with the data given 18. To accommodate risks in a project, Project Management should make use of: a. Float b. Lead Time c. Reserve d. Lag Time 19. The types of reserves that project management reserves use are: a. Contingency Reserve b. Management Reserve c. Float d. Both a and b 20. The risk that remains after Plan Risk Responses process is the: a. Contingency Reserve b. Management Reserve c. Float d. Both a and b 1. In his project, Project Manager Pete obtained the opinion of his team and acted based on the opinion to influence the outcome of the deliverable. What kind of project management style, Pete is using? a. Consensus b. Consultative – Autocratic c. Consultative d. Democratic 2. In his project, Project Manager Pete obtained the opinion of his team and acted based on what he thinks should be done to influence the outcome of the deliverable. What kind of project management style, Pete is using? a. Consensus b. Consultative – Autocratic c. Consultative d. Democratic 3. In his project, Pete used the decisions taken by his team to solve one of the deliverable problems. What kind of project management style, Pete is using? a. Consensus b. Consultative – Autocratic c. Consultative d. Democratic 4. The team got highly motivated to perform in the project based on the energizing words given by the project manager. What kind of style the project manger must have followed? a. Bureaucratic b. Consultative c. Charismatic d. Influencing 5. The project manager wanted to follow the procedures in strict compliance in his project since it related to the safety aspects in his project. What kind of style the project manager is following? a. Bureaucratic b. Democratic c. Influencing d. Consultative 6. The project team always looks up to the project manager for advise regarding the next steps to follow in the completion of the project. What kind of style the project manager must be using in his project? a. Analytical b. Driver c. Influencing d. Democratic 7. The project manager emphasizes the team to work together and make decision together as a team and also have a lot of team building activities. What kind of style the project manager must be following? a. Democratic b. Driver c. Directing d. Influencing 8. Accommodating a problem is also referred to as: a. Confronting b. Avoidance c. Problem Solving d. Smoothing 9. Withdrawal of a problem is also referred to as: a. Problem Solving b. Smoothing c. Avoidance d. Accommodating 10. Confronting of a problem is also referred to as: a. Problem Solving b. Smoothing c. Avoidance d. Compromising 11. The project manager trusts his project team because they are highly skilled and just performs the management role and only talks to his project team when necessary. What kind of project management style the project manager is susing? a. Analytical b. Laissez-faire c. Influencing d. Bureaucratic 12. The project manager makes technical decisions in his project since he has technical competencies in making decisions. What kind of style the project manager must be using? a. Participative b. Influencing c. Analytical d. Directing 13. The project manager insisted he can take decision because of his role in the project. What kind of power the project manager might be having? a. Coercive b. Expert c. Referent d. Legitimate 14. Issue Log is a tool to manage: a. Issues b. Team c. Stakeholders d. All of the Above 15. Co-location is somewhat similar to: a. Virtual Team b. Remote Teams c. War Room d. None of the Above