5. The starting material for the synthesis of ALPRAZOLAM is
(A) 3-amino-5-bromoacetophenone
(B) 2-amino-5-chlorobnzophenone
(C) 2-amino-5-bromoacetophenone
(D) 3-amino-5-chlorobenzophenone
6. Simplification of Morphinan system gave one BENZOMORPHAN derivative
(A) Pentazocin
(B) Pethidine
(C) Levorphanol
(D) Buprenorphine
7. A metabolite of SPIRONOLACTONE is
(A) Aldosterone
(B) Canrenone
(C) Corticosterone
(D)Pregnenolone
8. The IUPAC name for NAPROXEN is
(A) (S)-2-(6-ethoxy-2-napththyl)-acetic acid
(B) (S)-2-(6-methoxy-2-napththyl)-acetic acid
(C) (S)-2-(6-ethoxy-2-napththyl)-propionic acid
(D) (S)-2-(6-methoxy-2-napththyl)-propionic acid
9. The metabolic function of Riboflavin involves the following
(A) FMN and FAD
(B) NADP and NADPH
(C) AMP and ATP
(D) Retine and Retinine
10. X-ray spectral lines
Ka
doublet arises from transition of electrons from
(A) M shell to K shell
(B) L shell to K shell
(C) L shell to M shell
(D) M shell to L shell
11. The method of expressing magnetic field strength is
(A) cycles/sec
(B) pulses/sec
(C) debye units
(D)gauss
12. A solvent used in NMR studies is
(A) chloroform
(B) acetone
(C) carbontetrachloride
(D) methanol
13. A widely accepted detector electrode for pH measurement is
(A) platinum wire
(B) glass electrode
(C) Ag-AgCI electrode
(D) lanthanum fluoride
14. Commercial production of citric acid is carried out by the microbial culture of
(A) Fusarium moniliformi
(B) Rhizopus nigricans
(C) Aspergillus niger
(D) Candida utilis
15. For thermophilic microorganisms, the minimum growth temperature required is
(A) 20°C
(B) 37°C
(C) 45°C
(D)65°C
16. Obligatory anaerobes
(A) can tolerate oxygen and grow better in its presence
(B) do not tolerate oxygen and die in its presence
(C) can grow in oxygen levels below normal
(D) can grow in presence of atmospheric oxygen
17. Plasmid is a
(A) macromolecule involved in the protein synthesis
(B) circular piece of duplex DNA
(C) a hybrid DNA that is formed by joining pieces DNA
(D) endogenous substance secreted by one type of cell
18. Lactose intolerance is because of the lack of
(A) acid phosphatase
(B) lactate dehydrogenase
(C) galactose-1-phosphate-uridyl transferase
(D) amylase
19. Synthesis of UREA takes place exclusively in
(A) kidney
(B) liver
(C) gall bladder
(D) urinary bladder
20. A term which describes a cofactor that is finally bound to an apoenzyme is
(A) holoenzyme
(B) prosthetic group
(C) coenzyme
(D) transferase
21. How many parts of 1O% ointment be mixed with 2 parts of 15% ointment to get
12% ointment?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D)6
22. The correct non-ionic surfactant used as a penetration enhancer in the
preparation of mucoadhesives is,
(A) oleic acid
‘.‘7
(B) tween-80
(C) glycerol
(D) propylene glycol
23. One of the ex-officio member of the Pharmacy Council of India is
(A) Director General of Health Services
(B) Government Analyst
(C) Registrar of the State Pharmacy Council
(D) Director General of Indian Veterinary Research Institute
24. The Schedule in Drugs and Cosmetics Act that deals with the requirements and guidelines
for clinical trials, import and manufacture of new drugs is
(A) Schedule ‘0’
(B) Schedule ‘M’
(C) Schedule ‘F’
(D)Schedule ‘Y’
25. A retardant material that forms a hydrophilic matrix in the formulation of matrix
tablets is
(A) H.P.M.C
(B) C.A.P
(C) Polyethylene
(D) Carnauba Wax
26. A drug which causes pink to brownish skin pigmentation within a few weeks of the
initiation of therapy is
(A) itraconazole
(B) clofazimine
(C) lomefloxacin
(D) neomycin
27. The risk of Digitalis toxicity is significantly increased by concomitant administration of
(A) triamterene
(B) lidocaine
(C) captopril
(D) hydrochlorthiazide
28. An agent used in Prinzmetal angina has spasmolytic action which increases
coronary blood supply is
(A) nitroglycerine
(B) nifedipine
(C) timolol
(D) isosorbide mononitrate
29. An organism which has been implicated as a possible cause of chronic gastritie
and peptic ulcer is
(A) Campylobacterjejuni
(B) Escherichia coli
(C) Helicobacter Pylon
(D) Giardia lamblia
30. A 5HTID receptor agonist useful in migraine is
(A) sumatriptan
(B) ketanserin
(C) ergotamine
(D)methysergide
Q.31 — 80 Carry Two Marks Each.
31. At present, different species of Papaver such as P. bracteatum and P. orientale are being
cultivated instead of P.somniferum because they contain
(A) more of morphine
(B) less of morphine
(C) only codeine
(D) only thebaine
32. Guggulipid, a resin is
(A) a hypolipidemic agent obtained from cotton plants containing multifunctional compound
(±) gossypol
(B) a lipid obtained from Arctium lappa, asteraceae and traditionally used for the treatment of
dermatoses
(C) cathartic glucoresin obtained from Ipomoea orizabensis and used since ancient time
(D) a hypolipidemic agent obtained from Commiphora mukul consisting of a mixture of sterols
including Z-pregna-(20)-diene-3, 16-dione
33. In nitrofurantoin synthesis, 5-nitrofurfuraldehyde diacetate is treated with one of the
following intermediate in presence of CH3COOH+H2S04+C2H5OH
(A) hydantoin
(B) 1-5-diamino hydantoin
(C) 1-3-diamino hydantoin
(D) 1-amino-hydantoin
34. 4-hydroxy-3-hydroxymethyl benzaldehyde is treated with acetic anhydride and then kept
with ether solvent, t-butyl cyanide and acetic acid for ten days. Resulting compound is
reduced with LiAIH4 in tetrahydrofuran. The final product is
(A) isoprenaline
(B) dobutamine
(C) salbutamol
(D)oriciprenaline
35. 2-iminothiazolidine is treated with phenyloxirane to get a drug used in roundworm
infection is
(A) piperazine
(B) tetramisole
(C) thiabendazole
(D)levamisole
36. Thiamine hydrochloride on treatment with alkaline potassium ferricyanide gives
(A) thymochrome with fluorescence
(B) oxythiamine with golden yellow colour
(C) neopyrithiamine with orange yellow colour
(D) tiochrome with blue fluorescence
37. A new drug delivery system which is composed of phospholipids that spontaneously form a
multilamellar concentric bilayer vesicles with layers of aqueous media separating the lipid
layers is
(A) prodrugs
(B) liposomes
(C) osmotic pumps
(D) nanoparticles
38. Unless otherwise stated in the individual monograph of the pharmacopoeia, in the
disintegration test for enteric coated tablets, first the dissolution is carried out in
(A) 0.1 M HCI
(B) phosphate buffer
(C) water
(D) 0.1 MH2SO4
39. What is the proportion of NaCI required to render a 1.S% solution of drug isotonic with
blood plasma? The freezing point of 1% w/v solution of drug is -0.122°C and that of NaCI is
-0.576°C
(A) 0.65%
(B) 0.585%
(C) 0.9%
(D)0.5%
40. JR Spectra appear as dips in the curve rather than maxima as in UV-Visible spectra
because it is a plot of
(A) % Absorbance against Wave number.
(B) % Transmittance against Concentration
(C) % Absorbance against Concentration
(D) Transmittance against Wave number.
41. ESR is applied to only those substances showing paramagnetism which is due to
the magnetic moment of
(A) neutrons
(B) protons
(C) paired electrons
(D) unpaired electrons
81. What is the quantity of drug remaining undecomposed after 8 hours?
(A) 0.455 moles/litre
(B) 0.25 moles/litre
(C) 0.0455 moles/litre
(D) 0.10 moles/litre
82. What is the amount of drug deteriorated during the period of 24 hours?
(A) 0.026 moles/litre
(B) 0.0026 moles/litre
(C) 0.03 moles/litre
(D) 0.053 moles/litre
Data for questions 83 to 85:
In a formulation development laboratory, you have to formulate an oral dosage from
containing olive oil, vitamin A and water.
This section consists of TWENTY questions (EC3-EC22) of FIVE marks each. Attempt ANY
FIFTEEN questions. Answers must be given in the answer book provided. Answer for each
question must start on a fresh page and must appear at one place only. (Answers to all parts
of a question must appear together).
3. Write your inferences in one or two words only
(a) Two different samples of aloes are dissolved separately in water. 2 ml of the above
solutions are treated separately with 2 ml Bromine water
(i) A pale yellow precipitate with violet supernatant liquid is seen
(ii) A pale yellow precipitate with no violet supernatant liquid is seen
(b) A crude drug sample consisting of dried leaflets gave a positive Borntrager’s test
(c) When an air-dried latex is dissolved in water and treated with ferric chloride solution — a
red colour develops.
10. List the five important components in mass spectrometer.
11. In the assay of PYRIDOXINE HYDROCHLORIDE I.P.
(a) Name the solvent used for dissolution of sample
(b) Name the inorganic reagent which is added subsequently
(c) What is the reason for its addition?
(d) Name the tirant used.
(e) Give the structure of the final product.
1.22. The R-W coefficient test is used to evaluate
(a) Antibiotic activity
(b) Sterility of packaging material
(c) Nature of organism in bacterial infection
(d) Bactericidal activity
1.23. Diclofenac tablet coated with cellulose acetate phthalate has been administered to a
patient. Where do you except the drug to be released?
(a) Stomach
(b) Oral cavity
(c) Small intestine
(d) Liver
1.24. A microscopic examination of a culture isolate revealed spherical bodies with a smooth
outline growing in long chains. Identify the micro organism.
(a) Staphylococcus aureus
(b) Streptococcus pyogenes
(c) Rhizopus stolonifer
(d) Bacillus subtilis
17. Five common advices that are given to patients during administration of certain drugs are
given below. Choose the appropriate drug [only on each] from the list.
(a) Avoid milk products and Milk of magnesia half an hour before or after taking the medicine.
(b) Vitamin supplements containing pyridoxine should not be taken.
(c) Follow regular eating habits, especially immediately before and after taking this medicine.
(d) Do not worry about the reddishdiscolouration in the urine, sweat and saliva
during the treatment.
(e) Take with an antacid.
(i) Disprin (ii) Rifampicin (iii) Isoniazid (iv)Ampicillin
(v) Doxycycline (vi) L-dopa (vii)Ibuprofen (viii) Rantidine
(ix) Insulin (x) Cetirizine
2.4. The ring structures present in the alkaloids listed below are given in (a) — (d). Match
them.
(1) Codeine (a) Phenanthrene
(2) Ergotamine (b) Indole
(c) Quinoline
(d) Iso-quinoline
9. (a) Define [Answer each in one or two sentences only]
(a) Palisade ratio (b) Stomatal number (c) Stomatal index
(d) Vein islet number (e) Vein islet termination number
10. (a) Name the types of Stomata present in the following medicinal plants:
(i) Digitalis purpurea leaves (ii) Datura stramonium leaves
(iii) Cassia acutifolia leaves (iv) Mentha piperita
(b) Give the murexide test for detecting purine derivatives.
11. (a) How Benzodiazepines produce claming effect?
(b) How anxiolytic activity can be correlated?
(c) Why presence of 3(-OH) group confers shorter duration of action?
(d) Why intravenous solution of diazepam cause precipitation when mixed with
aqueous solution?
(e) What is the clinical use of Adenosine?
2.11. For the following potentiometric titrations indicator electrode used is given from
(a) to (d). Match them.
(1) Acid base (a) Silver electrode
(2) Complexometry (b) Glass electrode
(c) Platinum electrode
(d) Mercury-Mercury electrode
40. A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used as an antidepressant is
(A) Venlafaxine
(B) Selegiline
(C) Phenelzine
(D)Amoxapine
41. A patient receiving Digoxin for CCF is found to have elevated serum cholesterol. Which
hypolipidemic agent should not be prescribed?
(A) Clofibrate
(5) Cholestyramine
(C) Lovastatin
(D)Niacin
42. In the study of enzyme kinetics,
Vmax
is said to be attained when
(A) there is an excess of free enzyme as compared to the substrate
(B) virtually all of the enzyme is present as the enzyme-substrate complex and concentration
of the free enzyme is vanishingly small
(C) the maximum velocity of the reaction in the presence of low substrate concentration
(D) when the concentration of free enzyme equals that of the enzyme-substrate complex
43. Serum sample of a patient shows elevated levels of y—glutamyl transferase. The
patient could be suffering from
(A) Kidney disorder (B) Liver disease
(C) Parkinson’s disease (D) Myocardial infraction
44. Acidfast organisms are seen in the sputum of a 48-year old alcoholic man. A test
to confirm whether he needs long term multi-drug treatment for tuberculosis is:
(A) Chest X-ray
(B) Ziehel-Neelsen stain of the sputum
(C) Sputum cytology
(D) Mycobacterial cultures of the sputum
45. The distinguishing features in IR spectra between propionaldehyde and acetone is
(A) Weak-CH stretching and out of plane bending in propionaldehyde
(B) Keto group in acetone
(C) Two methyl groups in acetone
(D) - CH2 group in pionaldehyde
46. Nephelometric measurements are most sensitive for
(A) Clear solution (B) Concentrated solution
(C) Thick suspensions (D) Very dilute suspensions
47. The number of peaks shown by diethyl ether in an NMR spectrum are
(A) Four (B) Two (C) One (D)Five
48. The half-life for a zero order reaction is calculated using
(A) t1 = 0.693/k
(B) t1 = 2.303/k
(C) t1 = 1/ak
(D) t1 = a/2k
49. The biological half-life of procaine in a patient was 35 minutes and its volume of
distribution was estimated to be 60 L. The total clearance rate of Procaine is
(A) 1.188L/min
(B) 0.115L/min
(C) 11.5L/min
(D)5.75L/min
50. The ratio of the void volume to the bulk volume of the packing of the powder is
called as
(A) Porosity
(B) True density
(C) Granular density
(D) Bulk density
51. A co-solvent used in the preparation of parenteral products is:
(A) Benzyl alcohol
(B) Methyl alcohol
(C) Dimethyl acetamide (D) Phenol
Q.52-58 are multiple selection items. P, Q, R, S are the options. Two of these options are
correct. Choose the correct combination among A, B, C and D.
52. In mass spectroscopy, positively charged ions can be produced by
(P) Heating of the sample
(Q) Bombarding the sample with high energy electrons
(R) Bombarding the sample with high energy protons
(S) Chemical ionization
(A) Q, S (B) Q, R (C) P, R (D)P, S
53. A plastisizer and a high boiling point solvent used in the preparation of nial
lacquers are
(P) Butyl stea rate (Q) Ethyl lactate (R) Ethyl alcohol (S) Acetone
(A) P, Q (B) Q, S (C) R, S (D)Q, R
54. Two of the following attributes are true for describing the mechanism of action of
Thiabendazole.
(P) Neuromuscular blocking causing spastic paralysis
(Q) Blocks the response of the Ascaris muscle to ACH, causins flaccid paralysis in the worms
(R) Inhibits the Helminth specific enzyme fumarate reductase
(5) Arrest nematode cell divisions in metaphase by interfering with microtubule
assembly
(A) P, Q (B) R, S (C) Q, S (D)Q, R
55. The colour and flavour of Saffron are due to --
(P) Crocin (Q) Crocetin (R) Safranal
(5) Crepenyic acid
(A) R, S (B) P, R (C) Q, S (D)Q, P
56. Predict the two impurities which are likely to be present in Glipizide
(P) 5-methyl-N-[2-(4-sulphamoyl phenyl) enthyl] pyrazine-2-carboxamide.
(Q) 5-methyl-N-[2-(2-sulphamoyl phenyl) enthyl] pyrazine-2-carboxamide.
(R) Cyclohexanamine
(S) Cyclohexane
(A) P, R (B) P, Q (C) R, Q (D) R, S
57. Calcipotriene, a synthetic Vitamin D3 analogue has the following attributes
(P) Pronounced antirachitic activity
(Q) Inhibits epidermal cell proliferation and enhances cell differentiation
(R) Used as a topical application in the treatment of moderate plaque psoriasis
(S) Effect on calcium metabolism is 200 times more than Ergocalciferol
(A) Q, R (B) P, Q (C) R, S (D)Q, S
58. Insulin when released from the pancreatic 3 cells
(P) Can sequester blood glucose by forming a complex with it.
(Q) gets fully conjugated with glucuronic acid immediately, to be released upon suitable
stimuli in normal health.
(R) Acts on the transporter molecules to facilitate glucose movement across the cell
membranes.
(S) Increases storage of glucose to glycogen in the liver.
(A) P, R (B) R, S (C) P. S (D)Q, S
Q.59-65 ARE “MATCHING” exercises. Match Group I with Group II. Choose the correct
combination among the alternatives A, B, C and D.
59.
(A)P-1Q-4R-35-2 (B)P-2Q-3R-4S-1
(C)P-4Q-2R-1S-3 (D)P-3Q-2R-45-1
Group I Drugs Group II Titrants used in IP assays
(P) Ascorbic acid (1) TBAH
(Q) Pyridoxine
HCI (2) Iodine
(R) Dapsone (3) HCIO4
(S) Fluorouracil (4) Sodium nitrite
60.
(A)P-1Q-4R-35-2 (B)P-2Q-3R-4S-1
(C)P-4Q-2R-1S-3 (D)P-3Q-2R-45-1
Group I Umbelliferous
fruit Group II Diagnostic character
(P) Fenel (1) Wavy scierenchyma
(Q) Indian Dill (2) Branched and unbranched vittae
(R) Coriander (3) Reticulaterly lignified parenchyma
(S) Anise (4) Lateral ridges with vascular bundles
61.
(A)P-1Q-4R-35-2 (B)P-2Q-3R-4S-1
(C)P-4Q-2R-1S-3 (D)P-3Q-2R-45-1
Group I Enzyme systems responsible for phase 2 conjugation
Group II Types
pathways
(P) UDP — glucuronosyl transferase (1) N-methylation
(Q) ATP-sulfurylase & APS-phosphokinase (2) Sulphate
conjugation
(R) Acly synthatase & transacetylase (3) Glucuronidation
(5) ATP-methionine adenosine transferase (4) Amino acid
conjugation
62.
(A)P-1Q-4R-35-2 (B)P-2Q-3R-4S-1
(C)P-4Q-2R-1S-3 (D)P-3Q-2R-45-1
Group I Drugs Group II Titrants used in IP assays
(P) Ascorbic acid (1) TBAH
(Q) Pyridoxine
HCI (2) Iodine
(R) Dapsone (3) HCIO4
(S) Fluorouracil (4) Sodium nitrite
42. Rotation of electrons about the proton generates a secondary magnetic field which may
oppose the applied magnetic filed. The portion is then said to be
(A) shielded
(B) shifted
(C) hydrogen bonded
(D) deshielded
43. The analyte is used in the form of a solution in flame photometry because it
should undergo
(A) evaporation
(B) condensation
(C) nebulisation
(D) precipitation
44. The mechanism of antiparasitic action of Mebendazole and thiabendazole involves
(A) stimulation of acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions
(B) inhibition of dihydropolate red uctase
(C) interference with microtubule synthesis and assembly
(D) block thiamine transport
45. Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that
(A) requires pyridoxine supplementation
(B) causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued
(C) is ototoxic and nephrotoxic
(D) should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential
46. Decreased risk of Atherosclerosis is associated with increase in
(A) very low density lipoproteins
(B) low density lipoproteins
(C) cholesterol
(D) high density lipoproteins
47. The mechanism of action of Paclitaxel is
(A) bind to DNA through intercalation between specific bases and block the synthesis of new
RNA or DNA, cause DNA strand scission
(B) mitotic spindle poison through the enhancement of tubulin polymerization
(C) competitive partial agonist — inhibitor of estrogen and binds to estrogen receptors
(D) S-Phase specific antimetabolite that is converted by deoxykinase to the 5’- mono n u I eot
i d
48. Lycopodium spore method can be used to find out percentage purity of crude drugs which
contain
(A) multi-layered tissues or cells
(B) well defined particles which can be counted
(C) oil globules
(D) characteristic particles of irregular thickness, the length of which can be measured
49. The microscopical character of flower buds of Eugenia caryophyllus is
(A) collenchymatous parenchyma containing in its outer part numerous ellipsoidal
schizolysigenous oil glands
(B) small translucent endosperm containing aleurone grains
(C) wide parenchymatous starchy cortex, the endosperm containing volatile oil
(D) outer surface consisting of external perisperm, rough, dark brown with reticulate furrows
50. In protein biosynthesis, each amino acid
(A) recognizes its own codon by a direct interaction with the m-RNA template
(B) is added in its proper place toa growing peptide chain throught he “adaptor” function of t-
RNA
(C) is first attached to an anticodon specific for the amino acid
(D) undergoes fidelity translation which is assured by the presence of traces of DNA on the
ribosome
51. Rabies Antiserum I.P. is a
(A) a freeze dried preparation containing antitoxic globulin
(B) a preparation containing specific globulin or its derivatives obtained by purification of
hyperimmune serum or plasma of healthy horses
(C) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulin
(D) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulins obtained by purification of
hyperimmune serum of horses
Q.52-58 are multiple selection items. P, Q, R, S are the options. Two of these options are
correct. Choose the correct combination among A, B, C and D.
52. Total ash value in case of crude drug signifies
(P) organic content of the drug
(Q) mineral matter in the drug
(R) addition of extraneous matter such as sand, stone etc.
(S) woody matters present in the drug
(A) R, S (B) Q, R (C) P. Q (D)P, S
53. The compounds listed below contain c, t and i electrons
(P) Acetaldehyde
(Q) Butadiene
(R) Formaldehyde
(S) Benzene
(A) P, S (B) Q, R (C) P. R (D)Q, S
54. A 60 year old patient presents with glaucoma. Therapy should include
(P) topical atropine
(Q) topical pilocarpine
(R) oral acetazolamide
(S) oral pilocarpine
(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S
55. Measurement of particle size in pharmaceutical Aerosols is by
(P) Cascade impactor
(Q) light scatter decay
(R) Karl-Fischer method
(5) JR spectrophotometry
(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S
56. The common attributes of ascorbic acid, an antiscrobutic vitamin, are
(P) exist in nature in both reduced and oxidized form and in a state of reversible eq u i Ii b ri u
m
(Q) has a keto-enol system in the molecule
(R) has an aldehyde group since it gives positive Schiff’s reaction
(5) salt forming properties are due to the presence of free carboxyl group
(A) P, R (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, Q
57. Two properties of Radiopharmaceuticals are
(P) slow localization in target tissue
(Q) very long half-life to provide enough exposure to get imaging information
(R) short half-life to minimize radiation exposure yet long enough to get imaging information
(5) rapid localization in target tissue and quick clearance from non-target organs
(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S
58. Two correct statements concerning vitamin D are
(P) the active molecule 1, 25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol binds to intracellular receptor proteins
(Q) cholecalciferol is found in vegetables
(R) 1, 25-dihydroxy-D3 is the most potent vitamin D metabolite
(S) it is required in the diet of individuals exposed to sunlight
(A) P, S (B) P, R (C) R, S (D)Q, S
Group I
Group II
(Tablet Additives)
(Examples)
(P) Binder (1) Acacia
(Q) Insoluble lubricant (2) Light mineral oil
(R) Film coating material (3) Hydroxy ethyl cellulose
(5) Direct compression
diluent (4) Microcrystalline cellulose
(A) P-2 Q-3 R- 1 S-4
(B) P-4 Q-1 R-2 S-3
(C) P-4 Q-3 R-2 S-1
(D) P-2 Q-3 R-4 S-1
61.
Group I
Group II
(JR Detectors )
(Composition)
(P) Thermocouple (1) Oxides of Mn, CO and Ni
(Q) Pyroelectric
Detector (2) Bi-Sb
(R) Golay cells (3) Xenon
(5) Thermistor (4) Triglycine sulphate
(A)P-4Q-3R-1S-2 (B)P-3Q-4R-2S-1
(C)P-1Q-2R-3S-4 (D)P-3Q-4R-1S-2
62
Group I
Group II
(Alkaloid )
(Ring system)
(P) Coniine (1) Isoquinoline
(Q)
Papaverine (2) Pyridine-Piperidine
(R) Anabasine (3) Yohimbane
(S) Reserpine (4) Piperidine
(A) P - 4 Q - 3 R - 2 S - 1
(B) P - 2 Q - 4 R - 3 S - 1
(C) P - 3 Q - 4 R - 1 S - 2
(D) P - 2 Q - 1 R - 1 5 - 3
63.
Group I
Group II
(Immunoglobulins
(Actions)
[Ig])
(P) IgG (1) Agglutinating and cytolytic
(Q) IgA (2) Antiallergic
(R) 1gM () .[eutralises toxins
(S) IgE (4) Antimicrobial
(A) P-4 Q-3 R- 1 S-2
(B) P-1 Q-4 R- 2 S-3
(B) P-4 Q-1 R- 3 S-2
(D) P-3 Q-1 R-4 S-2
64
Group I
Group II
(Antibiotics)
(Microorganism used in I.P. assay)
(P) Streptomycin (1) Bacillus cereus
(Q)
Erythromycin (2) Stahylococcus epidermidis
(R) Gentamycin (3) Klebsiella pneumoniae
(S) Tetracycline (4) Micrococcus luteus
(A)P-3Q-2R-1S-4
(B)P-2Q-3R-45-1
(C)P-2Q-1R-35-4
(D)P-4Q-2R-35-1
Data for Q.66 — 90 are based on the statement/problem. Choose the correct answer for each
question from among the options A, B, C and D.
Data for questions 66 to 68:
Leaves of Digitalis purpurea were subjected to morphological, microscopical and chemical
screening.
(A) P
(C) P
Group I
(Synthetic
Group II
estrogtenic_drugs_
(Methods of synthesis)
)
(1) 4, 4’ Dimethoxy benzophenone is treated with 4- methoxy benzoyl
(P) Ethinyl
chloride + Mg, resulting product is treated with PTS followed by Cl2 +
estradiol
Cd4
(2) Deoxyanisoin is alkylated and product subjected to Grignard
(Q) Dienoestrol
reaction, the resulting tertiary alcohol is dehydrated and demethylated
with alcoholic KOH
(R) Chlorotrianisine (3) By Pinacol reduction of p-hydroxy propiophenone and subsequent
removal of water
(5) Stilboestrol (4) From Estrone by the action of Potassium acetylide
Group I
Group II
(Immunosuppressants
(Mechanism of action)
)
(P) Azathioprine (1) Destroys proliferating lymphoid cells
(Q) Tacrolimus (2) Prodrug transformed to mercaptopurine which on further
conversion inhibits purine metabolism
(R) Glucocorticoids (3) Inhibits the cytoplasmic phosphatase Calcineurin
(5) Cyclophosphamide (4) Interferes with the cell cycle of activated lymphoid cells
66. Morphological character with respect to the leaf is
(A) ovate lanceolate with entire margin
(B) ovate lanceolate with crenate margin
(C) linear lanceolate with serrate margin
(D) linear lanceolate with sinuate margin
67. Microscopical character of trichomes is
(A) unicellular, warty
(B) multicellular, uniseriate with 2-7 cells
(C) multicellular, uniseriate with 10-14 cells
(D) multicellular, multiseriate with 10-14 cells
68. The drug gives positive
(A) Borntrager’s test (B) Murexide test
(C) Legal’s test (D) Thaleoquin test
Data for questions 69 and 70:
In a synthetic procedure 5-chloro-2,1 4-cIiamino sulfomyl aniline is treated with P to obtain 7-
amino sulfomyl-6-chloro--ciildro-methyl-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazin-1:1 dioxide. Subsequently
it is refluxed with C6H5-CH2-SH + NaOH + DMF to yield Y.
69. Select the reagent P
(A) Chloroacetyldehyde (B) Formaldehyde
(C) Formic acid (D) Acetaldehyde
70. The final product Y is
(A) 3-benzyl methyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide
(B) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxide
(C) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide
(D) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxide
Data for questions 70 to 73:
Proguanil is synthesized by diazotization of p-chloroaniline and treating with dicynamide to
yield p-chlorophenyldicyandiamide which is converted to Proguanil by reaction with an
aliphatic amine. Proguanil is metabolized to a triazine derivative which is an active metabolite.
71. What is the reagent used for diazotization?
(A) NaNO2 + dilute HCI (B) KNO3 + dilute H2S04
(C) Zn + dilute H2S04 (D) Tin + H2S04
72. Name the aliphatic amine used
(A) Dimethylamine (B) Isopropylamine
(C) Isobutylamine (D) Diethylamine
73. Name the metabolite
(A) Thioguanil (B) Diguanil
(C) Cycloguanil (D) p-chlorophenyl biguanide
Data for questions 74 to 76:
Calculate the 2max for the following compounds. Base value for Benzaldehyde in ethanol is
250 mm.
74. 2max of p-promobenzaldehyde in nm is
(A) 265 (B) 255 (C) 275 (D)260
75. 2max of p-hydroxy benzaldehyde in nm is
(A) 253 (B) 275 (C) 261 (D)270
76. 2max of o-chlorobenzaldehyde in nm is
(A) 275 (B) 265 (C) 255 (D)250
Data for questions 77 and 78:
In the assay of Folic acid I.P., a weighed quantity is dissolved in 0.1 M NaOH solution and
subsequently treated with Zn and HCI. The resulting product is mixed with ammonium
sulphamate, kept for 2 minutes and a reagent is added to get final coloured product whose
absorbance is measured
77. Select the product obtained when folic acid is heated with Zn + HCI
(A) Benzoic acid (B) p-aminobenzoic acid
(C) Glutamic acid (D) Succinic acid
78. Select the reagent used for the development of colour
(A) N-1-naphthyl ethylene diamine didydrochloride
(B) Ninhydrin reagent
(C) p-dimethylamino benzaldehyde
(D) Phloroglucinol
Data for questions 79 and 80:
Parkinsonism is a common neurological movement disorder. Signs include rigidity of skeletal
muscles, akinesia, flat facies and tremors at rest. Both L-DOPA and Carbidopa are used.
79. Carbidopa is used because
(A) it crosses blood brain barrier
(B) it inhibits aromatic L-aminoacid decarboxylase
(C) it inhibits MAO type A
(D) it inhibits MAO type B
80. Select the specific unwanted effect of L-DOPA
(A) Dementia
(B) Hypertension
(C) Dyskinesia
(D) Excitotoxicity
Data for questions 81 and 82:
The decomposition of a drug in aqueous acid solution was found to follow first order reaction.
The initial concentration was found to be 0.056 M. The concentration after a period of 12
hours was 4.10 x 10-2 moles/litre. The reaction rate constant is 0.02599 - h r1.
42. Rotation of electrons about the proton generates a secondary magnetic field which mayoppose the applied magnetic filed. The portion is then said to be(A) shielded(B) shifted(C) hydrogen bonded(D) deshielded43. The analyte is used in the form of a solution in flame photometry because itshould undergo(A) evaporation(B) condensation(C) nebulisation(D) precipitation44. The mechanism of antiparasitic action of Mebendazole and thiabendazole involves(A) stimulation of acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions(B) inhibition of dihydropolate red uctase(C) interference with microtubule synthesis and assembly(D) block thiamine transport45. Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that(A) requires pyridoxine supplementation(B) causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued(C) is ototoxic and nephrotoxic(D) should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential46. Decreased risk of Atherosclerosis is associated with increase in(A) very low density lipoproteins(B) low density lipoproteins(C) cholesterol(D) high density lipoproteins47. The mechanism of action of Paclitaxel is(A) bind to DNA through intercalation between specific bases and block the synthesis of newRNA or DNA, cause DNA strand scission(B) mitotic spindle poison through the enhancement of tubulin polymerization(C) competitive partial agonist — inhibitor of estrogen and binds to estrogen receptors(D) S-Phase specific antimetabolite that is converted by deoxykinase to the 5’- mono n u I eoti d48. Lycopodium spore method can be used to find out percentage purity of crude drugs whichcontain(A) multi-layered tissues or cells(B) well defined particles which can be counted(C) oil globules(D) characteristic particles of irregular thickness, the length of which can be measured49. The microscopical character of flower buds of Eugenia caryophyllus is(A) collenchymatous parenchyma containing in its outer part numerous ellipsoidalschizolysigenous oil glands(B) small translucent endosperm containing aleurone grains(C) wide parenchymatous starchy cortex, the endosperm containing volatile oil(D) outer surface consisting of external perisperm, rough, dark brown with reticulate furrows50. In protein biosynthesis, each amino acid(A) recognizes its own codon by a direct interaction with the m-RNA template(B) is added in its proper place toa growing peptide chain throught he “adaptor” function of t-RNA(C) is first attached to an anticodon specific for the amino acid(D) undergoes fidelity translation which is assured by the presence of traces of DNA on theribosome51. Rabies Antiserum I.P. is a(A) a freeze dried preparation containing antitoxic globulin(B) a preparation containing specific globulin or its derivatives obtained by purification ofhyperimmune serum or plasma of healthy horses(C) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulin(D) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulins obtained by purification ofhyperimmune serum of horsesQ.52-58 are multiple selection items. P, Q, R, S are the options. Two of these options arecorrect. Choose the correct combination among A, B, C and D.52. Total ash value in case of crude drug signifies(P) organic content of the drug(Q) mineral matter in the drug(R) addition of extraneous matter such as sand, stone etc.(S) woody matters present in the drug(A) R, S (B) Q, R (C) P. Q (D)P, S53. The compounds listed below contain c, t and i electrons(P) Acetaldehyde(Q) Butadiene(R) Formaldehyde(S) Benzene(A) P, S (B) Q, R (C) P. R (D)Q, S54. A 60 year old patient presents with glaucoma. Therapy should include(P) topical atropine(Q) topical pilocarpine(R) oral acetazolamide(S) oral pilocarpine(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S55. Measurement of particle size in pharmaceutical Aerosols is by(P) Cascade impactor(Q) light scatter decay(R) Karl-Fischer method(5) JR spectrophotometry(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S56. The common attributes of ascorbic acid, an antiscrobutic vitamin, are(P) exist in nature in both reduced and oxidized form and in a state of reversible eq u i Ii b ri um(Q) has a keto-enol system in the molecule(R) has an aldehyde group since it gives positive Schiff’s reaction(5) salt forming properties are due to the presence of free carboxyl group(A) P, R (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, Q57. Two properties of Radiopharmaceuticals are(P) slow localization in target tissue(Q) very long half-life to provide enough exposure to get imaging information(R) short half-life to minimize radiation exposure yet long enough to get imaging information(5) rapid localization in target tissue and quick clearance from non-target organs(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S58. Two correct statements concerning vitamin D are(P) the active molecule 1, 25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol binds to intracellular receptor proteins(Q) cholecalciferol is found in vegetables(R) 1, 25-dihydroxy-D3 is the most potent vitamin D metabolite(S) it is required in the diet of individuals exposed to sunlight(A) P, S (B) P, R (C) R, S (D)Q, SGroup IGroup II(Tablet Additives)(Examples)(P) Binder (1) Acacia(Q) Insoluble lubricant (2) Light mineral oil(R) Film coating material (3) Hydroxy ethyl cellulose(5) Direct compressiondiluent (4) Microcrystalline cellulose(A) P-2 Q-3 R- 1 S-4(B) P-4 Q-1 R-2 S-3(C) P-4 Q-3 R-2 S-1(D) P-2 Q-3 R-4 S-161.Group IGroup II(JR Detectors )(Composition)(P) Thermocouple (1) Oxides of Mn, CO and Ni(Q) PyroelectricDetector (2) Bi-Sb(R) Golay cells (3) Xenon(5) Thermistor (4) Triglycine sulphate(A)P-4Q-3R-1S-2 (B)P-3Q-4R-2S-1(C)P-1Q-2R-3S-4 (D)P-3Q-4R-1S-262Group IGroup II(Alkaloid )(Ring system)(P) Coniine (1) Isoquinoline(Q)Papaverine (2) Pyridine-Piperidine(R) Anabasine (3) Yohimbane(S) Reserpine (4) Piperidine(A) P - 4 Q - 3 R - 2 S - 1(B) P - 2 Q - 4 R - 3 S - 1(C) P - 3 Q - 4 R - 1 S - 2(D) P - 2 Q - 1 R - 1 5 - 363.Group IGroup II(Immunoglobulins(Actions)[Ig])(P) IgG (1) Agglutinating and cytolytic(Q) IgA (2) Antiallergic(R) 1gM () .[eutralises toxins(S) IgE (4) Antimicrobial(A) P-4 Q-3 R- 1 S-2(B) P-1 Q-4 R- 2 S-3(B) P-4 Q-1 R- 3 S-2(D) P-3 Q-1 R-4 S-264Group IGroup II(Antibiotics)(Microorganism used in I.P. assay)(P) Streptomycin (1) Bacillus cereus(Q)Erythromycin (2) Stahylococcus epidermidis(R) Gentamycin (3) Klebsiella pneumoniae(S) Tetracycline (4) Micrococcus luteus(A)P-3Q-2R-1S-4(B)P-2Q-3R-45-1(C)P-2Q-1R-35-4(D)P-4Q-2R-35-1Data for Q.66 — 90 are based on the statement/problem. Choose the correct answer for eachquestion from among the options A, B, C and D.Data for questions 66 to 68:Leaves of Digitalis purpurea were subjected to morphological, microscopical and chemicalscreening.(A) P(C) PGroup I(SyntheticGroup IIestrogtenic_drugs_(Methods of synthesis))(1) 4, 4’ Dimethoxy benzophenone is treated with 4- methoxy benzoyl(P) Ethinylchloride + Mg, resulting product is treated with PTS followed by Cl2 +estradiolCd4(2) Deoxyanisoin is alkylated and product subjected to Grignard(Q) Dienoestrolreaction, the resulting tertiary alcohol is dehydrated and demethylatedwith alcoholic KOH(R) Chlorotrianisine (3) By Pinacol reduction of p-hydroxy propiophenone and subsequentremoval of water(5) Stilboestrol (4) From Estrone by the action of Potassium acetylideGroup IGroup II(Immunosuppressants(Mechanism of action))(P) Azathioprine (1) Destroys proliferating lymphoid cells(Q) Tacrolimus (2) Prodrug transformed to mercaptopurine which on furtherconversion inhibits purine metabolism(R) Glucocorticoids (3) Inhibits the cytoplasmic phosphatase Calcineurin(5) Cyclophosphamide (4) Interferes with the cell cycle of activated lymphoid cells66. Morphological character with respect to the leaf is(A) ovate lanceolate with entire margin(B) ovate lanceolate with crenate margin(C) linear lanceolate with serrate margin(D) linear lanceolate with sinuate margin67. Microscopical character of trichomes is(A) unicellular, warty(B) multicellular, uniseriate with 2-7 cells(C) multicellular, uniseriate with 10-14 cells(D) multicellular, multiseriate with 10-14 cells68. The drug gives positive(A) Borntrager’s test (B) Murexide test(C) Legal’s test (D) Thaleoquin testData for questions 69 and 70:In a synthetic procedure 5-chloro-2,1 4-cIiamino sulfomyl aniline is treated with P to obtain 7-amino sulfomyl-6-chloro--ciildro-methyl-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazin-1:1 dioxide. Subsequentlyit is refluxed with C6H5-CH2-SH + NaOH + DMF to yield Y.69. Select the reagent P(A) Chloroacetyldehyde (B) Formaldehyde(C) Formic acid (D) Acetaldehyde70. The final product Y is(A) 3-benzyl methyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide(B) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxide(C) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide(D) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxideData for questions 70 to 73:Proguanil is synthesized by diazotization of p-chloroaniline and treating with dicynamide toyield p-chlorophenyldicyandiamide which is converted to Proguanil by reaction with analiphatic amine. Proguanil is metabolized to a triazine derivative which is an active metabolite.71. What is the reagent used for diazotization?(A) NaNO2 + dilute HCI (B) KNO3 + dilute H2S04(C) Zn + dilute H2S04 (D) Tin + H2S0472. Name the aliphatic amine used(A) Dimethylamine (B) Isopropylamine(C) Isobutylamine (D) Diethylamine73. Name the metabolite(A) Thioguanil (B) Diguanil(C) Cycloguanil (D) p-chlorophenyl biguanideData for questions 74 to 76:Calculate the 2max for the following compounds. Base value for Benzaldehyde in ethanol is250 mm.74. 2max of p-promobenzaldehyde in nm is(A) 265 (B) 255 (C) 275 (D)26075. 2max of p-hydroxy benzaldehyde in nm is(A) 253 (B) 275 (C) 261 (D)27076. 2max of o-chlorobenzaldehyde in nm is(A) 275 (B) 265 (C) 255 (D)250Data for questions 77 and 78:In the assay of Folic acid I.P., a weighed quantity is dissolved in 0.1 M NaOH solution andsubsequently treated with Zn and HCI. The resulting product is mixed with ammoniumsulphamate, kept for 2 minutes and a reagent is added to get final coloured product whoseabsorbance is measured77. Select the product obtained when folic acid is heated with Zn + HCI(A) Benzoic acid (B) p-aminobenzoic acid(C) Glutamic acid (D) Succinic acid78. Select the reagent used for the development of colour(A) N-1-naphthyl ethylene diamine didydrochloride(B) Ninhydrin reagent(C) p-dimethylamino benzaldehyde(D) PhloroglucinolData for questions 79 and 80:Parkinsonism is a common neurological movement disorder. Signs include rigidity of skeletalmuscles, akinesia, flat facies and tremors at rest. Both L-DOPA and Carbidopa are used.79. Carbidopa is used because(A) it crosses blood brain barrier(B) it inhibits aromatic L-aminoacid decarboxylase(C) it inhibits MAO type A(D) it inhibits MAO type B80. Select the specific unwanted effect of L-DOPA(A) Dementia(B) Hypertension(C) Dyskinesia(D) ExcitotoxicityData for questions 81 and 82:The decomposition of a drug in aqueous acid solution was found to follow first order reaction.The initial concentration was found to be 0.056 M. The concentration after a period of 12hours was 4.10 x 10-2 moles/litre. The reaction rate constant is 0.02599 - h r1.
63.
(A)P-2Q-4R-1S-3
(B)P-4Q-1R-3S-2
(C)P-3Q-2R-45-1
(D)P-3Q-1R-25-4
Group I
Terms Group II Explanation
(P) Saturated
(1) Pounds of water vapour carried by one pound of dry air under any given
air
set of conditions
(Q) Dew point (2) The water vapour is in equilibrium with liquid water at the given
conditions of temperature and pressure
(R) Humid
(3) The volume in cubic feet occupied by one pound dry of air and its
volume
accompanying water vapour
(S) Humidity (4) Temperature to which a mixture of air and water vapour must be cooled
in order to become saturated.
64.
(A) P – 1 Q – 2 R – 4 S – 3
(B) P – 3 Q – 1 R – 2 S – 4
Group I
Antibiotic Group II Test organism for microbiological assay IP
(P) Bleomycin (1) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(Q) Nystatin (2) Mycobacterium smegmatis
(R) Carbenicillin (3) Bacillus subtilis
(S) Streptomycin (4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Data for Q.66 — 80 are based on the statement/problem. Choose the correct answer for each
question from among the options A, B, C and D.
Common data for questions 66 and 67:
A sample of
Cinnamomum zeylanicum
purchased from the market was evaluated for its
authenticity.
66. It shows
(A) presence of cork and cortex (B) absence of cork and cortex
(C) absence of phloem fibres (D) presence of xylem parenchyma
67. Volatile oil should not be less than
(A)
0.05°h
(B)
0.20°h
(C)
0.50°h
(D) 1.00°h
Common data for questions 68, 69 and 70:
Chloroacetic acid and hydrazine are treated together with X to get semicarbazido acetic acid in
which ring closure takes place to 1-amino hydantoin. It is subsequently treated with 2-
diacetoxy methyl-5-nitrofuran to get Nitrofurantoin.
68. Reagetn ‘X’ is
(A) Cuprous chlodride (B) Potassium cyanate
(C) Silver nitrate (D) Mercurous chloride
69. Its IUPAC name is
(A) 1-(5-nitrofurfuryl) hydantoin
(B) 1-(5-nitrofurfurylidene hydroxyl)hydantoin
(C) 1-(5-nitrofurfurylidine amino) hydantoin
(D) 1-(5-aminfurfurylidine nitro) dydantoin
70. Its gastrointestinal tolerance can be improved without interfering with oral
absorption by preparing a
(A) solid dispersion (B) prodrug
(C) large crystalline form (Macrodantin) (D) suspension
Common data for questions 71 and 72:
A compound ‘X’ with molecular formula C2H4O exhibits a strong absorption band at 1730
cm1 in IR spectrum. On reduction, it is converted into ‘Y’ which shows a strong band at
3640cm*
71. Assign the band in X to
(A) CH3 (B) C = C (C) C = 0 (D)CH2C=O
72. The strong band in Y is due to
(A) -C-C (B) -C-O-C- (C) =CH2 (D)-OH
Common data for questions 73, 74 and 75:
In the management of asthma, the drugs used are Salmeterol, Zafirlukast, Budesonide,
Nedocromil sodium and Bambuterol.
73. Zafirlukast acts as
(A) 2 adrenoceptor agonist
(B) Cysteinyl-leukotriene receptor antagnoist
(C) uscarinic receptor antagonist
(D) Antihistamine
74. A prodrug of terbutaline is
(A) Zafirlukast (B) Salmeterol
(C) Bambuterol (D) Nedocromil sodium
75. Warfarin interacts with this antiasthmatic drug and increases prothrombin time
(A) Budesonide (B) Zafirlukast (C) Salmeterol (D)Bambuterol
Common data for questions 76, 77 and 78:
In a pharmaceutical industry, batch filtration of liquids where the proportion of solids to liquids
is high is to be carried out. The complete recovery of solids is required. After filtration, the
filtrate, which is corrosive, gives a crystalline product on evaporation. The liquid tends to
deposit scales or crystals on the heating surface during evaporation.
76. A suitable filtration equipment is
(A) Plate and frame filter press (B) Leaf filters
(C) Meta filters (D) Membrane filters
77. The filter aid used in the above filtration is
(A) Sand (B) Nylon fibre cloth
(C) Activated carbon (D) Filter paper
78. A suitable evaporator is
(A) falling film evaporator (B) forced circulation evaporator
(C) vertical evaporator (D) horizontal tube evaporator
Common data for questions 79 and 80:
Isoprenoid biosynthesis is involved in the production of many biologically important
compounds such as Cholesterol, Steriod Hormones, Vitamin K, Vitamin E and bile acids.
79. HMG-Co A reductase, a key enzyme in the patway, catalyzes
(A) side chain cleavage in the conversion of cholesterol to steroid hormones
(B) the reduction of the thio-ester group to an alcohol in mevalonate biosyntheis.
(C) the reduction of the hydroxyl group of mevalonate to Vitamin D.
(D) steroid condensation reaction in the biosynthesis of bile acids.
80. The inhibition of HMG-C0A teductase is a strategy used in the treatment of
(A) Familia hyperchlesterolemia (B) Vitamin K deficiency
(C) Inflammation in the joints (D) Hepatic parenchymal disease
Linked Answer Questions: Q.81a to Q85b Carry Two Marks Each. Statement for Linked Answer
Questions 81a to 81b:
81. (A) The selective COX-2 inhibitor is
(A) Ketorolac (B) Rofecoxib (C) Indomethacin (D)Naproxen
(B) The drug selected is not to be given, if the patient is already taking
(A) Antiallergic drugs (B) Anxiolytic drugs
(C) Antihypertensive drugs (D) Oral antidiabetic agents
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 82a to 82b:
A drug solution has an initial potency of 300 mg/lOml. When stored in a refrigerator for 30
days, its potency was found to be 100 mg/10m1.
82. (A) The rate constant, assuming that the drug solution undergoes first order kinetics, is:
(A) 0.0366 day1 (B) 0.0074 day1 (C) 0.0174 day1 (D)0.0506 day1
(B) Half-life of the drug solution, under these conditions is:
(A) 9.4 days (B) 19 days (C) 47 days (D)4.7 days
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 83a to 83b:
Ginger is a widely used herbal drug, containing many chemical constituents.
83. (A) The pungent principle present in it, is
(A) Zingiberol (B) Zingiberene (C) Gingerol (D)Cineole
(B) It’s decomposition product, on boiling with
2°h
KOH is
(A) Zingiberone (B) Shogaol
(C) Gingediol (D) Gingediol acetate
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 84a to 84b:
2, 6-dimethyl phenol and chloroacetone on reaction gives ‘X’, which on treatment with
hydroxylamine and hydrochloric acid gives an intermediate product. This on further treatment
with Raney nickel in acid, gives the final product.
84. (A) The product ‘X’ is:
(A) 1-(2, 6-Dimethyl phenoxy)-2-propanone
(B) 1-(2, 6-Dimethyl phenoxy)-2-butanone
(C) 1-(2, 6-Dimethyl phenoxy)-2-isopropanone
(D) 1-(2, 6-Dimethyl phenoxy)-2-pentanone
(B) The final product is
(A) 1-methyl-2-(2, 6-xylyloxy)isopropylamine
(B) 1-methyl-2-(2, 6-xylyloxy)ethylamine
(C) 1-methyl-2-(2, 6-xylyloxy)butylamien
(D) 1-methyl-2-(2, 6-xylyloxy)pentylamine
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 85a to 85b:
An organic compound ‘X’ has an absorption maxima at 217 nm. Its Emax is 16,000. the
absorbance is 0.64 when the cell length is 1 cm.
85. (A) The molar concentration of ‘X’ is
(A) 5x105 (B) 4x105 (C) 4x104 (D)5x102
(B) If the molecular weight is 56.06, its concentration in gms/ml is:
(A) 2.5x10 6 (B) 0.25x10 6 (C) 5x10 (D) 2.24x10 6
1. The structural feature common fro propranolol, atenolol, pindolol, metopropol in
the side chain is
(A) Isopropylamino propan-2-ol
(B) Dimethylamino propan-2-ol
(C) Diethylamino propan-2-ol
(D) Dibutylamino propan-2-ol
2. When N-methyl group of morphine is replaced with an allyl group, the compound formed is
(A) Naloxone-morphine antagonist
(B) Natrexone-morphine agonist
(C) Nalorphine-morphine antagonist
(D) Nalbuphine-morphine agonist/antagonist
3. Nitrazepam can be synthesized from
(A) 2-Bromo-5-amino benzophenone
(B) 2-Nitro-2-chloro acetophenone
(C) 2-Amino-5-nitro cyclohexanone
(D) 2-Amino-5-nitro benzophenone
4. Clavulanic acid has a beta lactam king fused to
(A) Thienyl system
(B) Thiadiazole system
(C) Thiazolidine system
(D) Oxazolidine system
5. A drug which has antipyretic, anti-inflammatroy and antiplatelet activity is
(A) Sulfinpyrazone
(B) Aspirin
(C) Ticlopidine
(D) Acetaminophen
6. Wild cherry bark contains prunasin which is a
(A) Phenolic glycoside
(B) Isothiocyanate glycoside
(C) Coumarin glycoside
(D) Cyanogenetic glycoside
7. Ephedra sinica and Ephedra equisetina can be distinguished by type of
(A) Branching
(B) Stomata
(C) Scaly leaves
(D)Alkaloids
8. Microprapagation of the plants is carried out through
(A) Cross fertilization
(B) Seed germination
(C) Plant tissue culture
(D) Grafting
9. Acontitine belongs to the group of
(A) Steroidal alkaloids
(B) Terpenoidal alkaloids
(C) Indole alkaloids
(D) Quinoline alkaloids
10. Crude fiber value of a drug is a measure of
(A) Soft tissue matter
(B) Woody matter
(C) Mineral matter
(D) Organic matter
11. One of the units used for expressing pressure is ‘torr’ and it is equal to
(A) cm of Hg
(B) mm of Hg
(C) psi
(D)gauss
12. Removal of a single electron from a molecule results in the formation of
(A) Fragment ion
(B) Metastable ion
(C) Molecular ion
(D) Rearrangement ion
13. Nuclear magnetic moment is NOT shown by
(A)
13C
(B) 16Q
(C)
1H
(D)
15N
14. Derivatisation techniques in HPLC are intended to enhance
(A) Molecular weight
(B) Detectability
(C) Reversibility
(D) Reproducibility
15. A conductance cell is calibrated by using a solution of known conductivity, i.e., usually a
solution of
(A) NaCI
(B)
Hg2CI2
(C) KCI
(D)
Na2SO4
16. Metoclopramide is generally used for
(A) Prophylaxis of vomiting
(B) Preventing motion sickness
(C) Treating irritable bowel syndrome
(D) Treatment of pancreatic insufficiency
18. Identify the non-pathogenic organism
(A) Mycobacterium bovis
(B) Mycobacterium smegmatis
(C) Mycobacterium avium
(D) Mycobacterium intracellulare
19. Bioassays are carried out to
(A) Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug
(B) Avoid clinical trails for new drugs
(C) Detect the impurity in a given drug
(D) Screen fro pharmacognetic influences of new drugs.
20. A direct way of studying idiosyncratic reactions to a given drug is by
(A) changing the route of drug administration
(B) changing the assay method
(C) pharmacogenomics
(D) structure activity relationship studies of a family of compounds
21. An example of haemopoietic growth factor is
(A) platelet derived growth factor
(B) epidermal growth factor
(C) iron dextran
(D) erythropoietin
22. Safranin is used as a reagent to detect
(A) Gram-negative bacteria
(B) Gram-positive bacteria
(C) Acid fast bacteria
(D) Myxozoa
23. Sulphonamides do not have adverse drug interaction with
(A) Oral anticoagulants
(B) Sulfonylurea hypoglycemic agents
(C) Hydantoin anticonvulsants
(D) Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitors
24. Simvastatin belongs to
(A) HMG CoA reductase inhibitor type of antilipidemic agents
(B) HMG CoA reductase inhibitor type of anticoagulant agents
(C) Fibrate type of anticoagulant agents
(D) Fibrate type of antilipidemic agents
25. HIV infection can be clinically controlled with
(A) Cytarabine
(B) Acyclovir
(C) Zidovudine
(D)Amantadine
26. The measure of cohesive strength of the cross linking that occurs between gelatin
molecules and is proportional to the molecular weight of gelatin is called
(A) Bloom strength
(B) Viscosity
(C) Surface tension
(D) Partition coefficient
27. A water soluble substance used as coating material in microencapsulation process is:
(A) Polyethylene
(B) Silicone
(C) Hydroxy ethyl cellulose
(D) Paraffin
28. One of the following is used as a solubilizing agent to solubilize testosterone in
pharmaceutical liquid dosage forms.
(A) Sucrose monoesters
(B) Lanolin esters
(C) Lanolin ethers
(D) Tweens
29. One of the following is used as a pH dependent controlled release excipient.
(A) Carnauba wax
(B) Hydroxy proply methyl cellulose phthalate
(C) Methyl cellulose
(D) Glyceryl monostearate
30. The Schedule in D & C act that deals with the standards for disinfectant fluids is:
(A) Schedule B
(B) Schedule F
(C) Schedule 0
(D)Schedule M
Q.31 — 80 Carry Two Marks Each.
31. The carboxyl group of aspirin is esterified with N-acetyl-p-aminophenol to get
(A) 3-Acetamidophenly-O-acetyl salicylate
(B) 4-Acetamidophenly-O-acetyl salicylate
(C) O-(2-hydroxy benzoyl) salicylic acid
(D) 2-acetamidophenyl-O-acetyl salicylate
32. JUPAC system of nomenclature for diclophenac sodium (BP) is
(A) Sodium 2-[(2, 6-Dichlorophenyl) amino] phenyl acetate
(B) Sodium 3-[(2, 6-Dichlorophenyl) amino] phenyl acetate
(C) Sodium 2-[(2-Chlorophenyl) amino] phenyl acetate
(D) Sodium 2-[(6-Chlorophenyl) amino] phenyl acetate
33. 1-(2-Aminoethyl) perdydroazocine on treatment with S-methyl isothiourea gives rise to an
adrenergic neuron blocking agent
(A) Bethanidine
(B) Mecamylamine
(C) Guanadrel
(D)Gauenthidine
34. Quercetin is
(A) 5, 7, 3-Trihydroxy flavone
(B) 5, 7, 3, 4-Tetradydroxy flavone
(C) 3, 5, 7, 3, 4-Pentahydroxy flavonol
(D) 3, 5, 7, 3, 4-Pentahydroxy flavonone
35. Meconic acid is a chemical marker for the genus
(A) Piper
(B) Pilocarpus
(C) Prunus
(D)Papaver
36. A novel diterpenoid isolated from the bark of Taxus brevifolia is
(A) Demecolcine
(B) Paclitaxel
(C) Vinblastin
(D)Brevifolicin
37. The absorption maximum for polar compounds is usually shifted with change in
polarity of the solvents due to
(A) Hydrogen bonding
(B) Chemical reaction
(C) Ionization of the compounds
(D) Change in the chromophone
38. A titration in which potential applied across two electrodes is maintained at a constant
value and the current is measured and plotted against volume of titrant is
(A) Potentiometric titration (B) Amperometric titration
(C) Displacement titration (D) Conductometric titration
39. The parameter in the elution curve that is proportional to the concentration of a compound
in gas chromatographic effluent is the
(A) Number of peaks
(B) Width of the peak
(C) Area under the peak
(D) Shape of the peak
40. A drug solution has a half life of 21 days. Assuming that the drug undergoes first order
kinetics, how long will it take for the potency to drop to 9O/c of the initial
potency?
(A) 3.2 days
(B) 9.6 days
(C) 16 days
(D)6.4 days
41. An amphoteric surfactant used in pharmaceutical disperse system is:
(A) Bile salts
(B) Lecithin
(C) Sorbitan monolaurate
(D) Sorbitan monostearate
42. An abrasive used in dentifrices is
(A) Dicalcium phosphate
(B) Sodium carboxy methyl cellulose
(C) Sodium lauryl sulfate
(D) Dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate
43. An electrochemical method that enhances the transport of some solute molecules by
creating a potential gradient through the skin tissue with an applied electrical
current or voltage is called
(A) Electrophoresis
(B) lontophoresis
(C) Osmosis
(D)Implants
44. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has been taking acetyl salicylic acid regularly. However,
recently she has been experiencing stiffness, swelling and pain due to salicylate resistance.
She has occult blood in her faeces. Suggest an appropriate drug suitable for her from those
mentioned below:
(A) Paracetamol
(B) Celecoxib
(C) Piroxicam
(D)Naproxen
45. The break down of fibrin is catalyzed by
(A) Plasmin
(B) Renin
(C) Urokinase
(D)Ptylin
46. Which one of the these best describes a process carried out to render a drug
pharmacokinetically more acceptable?
(A) Enteric coating if diclofenac.
(B) Co-administration of aspirin with antacids.
(C) Use of colloidal suspensions or liposomes for administering amphotericin-B.
(D) Synthesis of an analogue to obtain high receptor specificity.
47. Azithromycin is clinically administered once daily as compared to erythromycin which is
administered every 6 hours because, azithromycin
(A) Penetrates into most tissues and is released very slowly.
(B) Has a methylated nitrogen in its lactone ring which renders it much more potent than
erythromycin.
(C) Is a very potent antibiotic but not tolerated well in the gastrointestinal tract.
(D) Is usually presented in a sustained release dosage form.
48. A patient showing muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, tremors and postural instability was
administered levo-dopa. Which of the properties of levo-dopa is not true?
(A) Levo-dopa is preferred over dopamine because it can cross the blood brain barrier.
(B) Levo-dopa is the levorotatory stereoisomer of 3, 4-dihydroxy phenylalanine.
(C) Levo-dopa gets decarboxylated in the brain to dopamine.
(D) Levo-dopa is administered because of its strong antagonistic action on dopamine
receptors.
49. Autoimmunity refers to
(A) an automatic trigger of the immune system directed against a specific pathogen.
(B) failure to distinguish between self and non-self
(C) an automatic segregation of T and B cells.
(D) failure of B-cells to interact with T-cells.
50. Which of these is true about the discovery of HB antigen in the blood of people infected
with Hepatitis-B?
(A) It provided a basis for vaccine design.
(B) It indicated that specific vaccines cannot be designed for Hepatitis-B.
(C) It has not been of much significance.
(D) It indicated that Hepatitis-B is a viral disease
51. Which drug molecule DOES NOT have phenylethyl amine moiety?
(A) Amphetamine
(B) Glyburide
(C) Pheniramine
(D)Mescaline
Q.52-58 are multiple selection items. P, Q, R, S are the options. Two of these options are
correct. Choose the correèt combination among A, B, C and D.
52. There are two methods by which the duration of action of insulin may be prolonged.
(P) Binding with resins.
(Q) Esterification of amio acid residues.
(R) Forming of complex of insulin with protein.
(5) Modification of particle size.
(A) Q, R (B) R, S (C) P.S (D)P, R
53. The attributes of cycloserine are
(P) No tautomerism shown.
(Q) Exists in equilibrium with its tautomeric enolic form.
(R) Stable in alkaline solution, destroyed rapidly at neutral or acidic pH.
(S) Stable in neutral solution, destroyed in alkaline pH.
(A) R, S (B) P, Q (C) Q, R (D)P, R
54. Compared to benzyl penicillin, amoxicillin has the following advantages in biological
properties.
(P) The amino group renders the antibiotic resistant to acid catalysed degradation.
(Q) The spectrum of acidity is broadened.
(R) The amino group of renders penicillinase resistance to the compound.
(S) The phenolic group renders penicillinase resistance to the compound.
(A) P, Q (B) P, R (C) P. S (D)Q, R
55. The identification of propellants in pharamaceutical aerosols is carried out by
(P) Gas-chromatography
(Q) Tag-open cup apparatus
(R) Pyknometer
(S) JR Spectrophotometer
(A) P, Q (B) P, S (C) Q, R (D)R, S
56. Schedule ‘H’ and Schedule ‘5’ as per the Drugs and Cosmetics Act deal with the following.
(P) Prescription drugs which are required to be sold by retail only on prescription of R.M.P.
(Q) Standards for cosmetics
(R) Biological and special products
(5) List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics and soaps
(A) P, Q (B) P, R (C) Q, S (D)R, S
57. Myristica fragrans Houtt has two of the following characteristics.
(P) An indeciduous tree, which produces drupaceous, pale yellow fruits.
(Q) Each fruit has several round seeds with smooth surface and lignaceous tegument, and the
orange red fleshy aril — the mace, is present inside the seed.
(R) A deciduous tall tree, which produces lignaceous capsules.
(S) Each fruit has a unique avoid seed, with lignified tegument, surrounded by orange red
laciniate fleshly aril — the mace.
(A) Q, R (B) P, R (C) P.S (D)Q, S
58. Jn size exclusion chromatography the stationary phases used are:
(P) Alumina (Q) Dextran (R) Agarose (S)Styrene
(A) P, S (B) Q, R (C) Q, S (D)P, R
Q.59-65 ARE “MATCHING” exercises. Match Group I with Group II. Choose the correct
Group II
Group I
Intermediates from which Group I drugs are
Synthetic Drugs
synthesized
(P) Buclizin (1) Aziridin and thiophosphoryl chloride
(Q)
C h 10 ro ph en es
(2) 4-Chlorophenol
in
(R) Thiotepa (3) 4-Chlorobenzhydryl chloride
(S) Alprazolam (4) 2-Amino-5-Chloro benzophenone
Codes:
(A) P - 3 Q - 2 R - 1 S-4
(B) P - 4 Q - 2 R - 1 S - 3
(C) P - 2 Q - 4 R - 3 S-1
(D) P - 1 Q - 2 R - 4 S - 3
60
Group I
Group II
Cardiac Agents
Mechanism of action
(P) Digitoxin (1) Produces negative inotropic effect by blocking
calcium channels
(Q)
(2) Depresses adrenergically enhanced calcium influx
Dobutamine
through beta receptor blockade
(R) Sotalol (3) Causes elevation of cAMP levels by stimulation of
adenylate cyclase.
(4) Inhibits membrane bound sodium potassium ATPase
(S) Nicardipine
pump.
Codes:
(A)P-4Q-3R-2S-1
(B)P-3Q-4R-1S-2
(C)P-4Q-2R-3S-1
(D)P-4Q-3R-1S-2
61.
Group I
Group II
Technique employed
Source of Radiation
(P) Visible spectrophotometry (1)
Rf
Source transmitter
(Q) JR spectrophotometry (2) Xenon lamp
(R) NMR spectrophotometry (3) Tungsten lamp
(S) Fluorescence (4) Nernst glower
spectrophotometry
Codes:
(A) P - 2 Q - 4 R-3 S-1
(B) P - 3 Q - 2 R - 1 S - 4
(C) P - 3 Q - 4 R- 1 S-2
(D) P - 4 Q - 1 R - 3 S - 2
1. In a comparative chemical study of Morphine, Codeine and Thebaine, the following
observations are noted. Give your inferences
(a) Morphine forms dibenzoate, Codeine forms a monobenzoate
(b) Morphine gives a positive ferric chloride test and others do not
(c) Codeine gives one molecule of CH3I when heated with HI where as thebaine gives two
molecules CH3I
(d) Morphine on treatment with halogenoacid gives a monohalogen derivative
(e) All the three alkaloids combine with CH3I to form methiiodide
5. With respect to Ceylon Cinnamon, give
(a) Botanical source with family
(b) Main active constituent with its chemical nature
(c) Chemical structure of the main active constituent
6. Assign the bands in the JR spectrum for appropriate groups given below:
>C=O, aromatic compounds, -OH, >C=C<, -CC (a 3700 — 3500 cm1 (b) 1740 — 1720 cm1 (c) 1667 — 1640 cm1 (d) 2260 — 2100 cm1 (e) 900 — 675 cm1 7. In the microbiological assay of ERYTHROMYCJN, I.P. (a) Name the organism used (b) Name the solvent used (c) What is the buffer used? (d) In what pH is the experiment done? (e) What is the incubation temperature? 8. (a) 0.25 g of a compound C10H15N0.HCIwas titrated with 0.1 M HCIO4. It consumed 12.5 ml of the titrant. (i) What is the stoichiometric factor used for the calculation of percentage purity? (ii) Calculate the percentage purity (b) Write the formula used and calculate the absorbance of a solution of a compound having and Emax 6200, when 0.05 mM solution is measured in a 1 cm cell. 9. (a) Complete the following reactions giving appropriate structures. 0-toluidine is treated with 2-Bromo propionyl bromide, the resulting product is treated with propylamien to get the drug. (b) To which therapeutic category does the drug belong? 10. 2-amino-4, 5-dimethoxy benzoic acid NaOCN ) A PCI3 /PCI5 B NH3 C 1 (2 Furoyl piperazine) ) D (a) Write the products at A, B, C, D. (b) To which therapeutic category does the drug D belong? 11. 2H — 1,2,4 — Benzothiadiazine — 7 — sulfonamide — 6 — chloro-1, 1-dioxide, can be modified to change biological properties. Comment on the effect of the following modifications to the structure. (a) Saturation of -3-4-double bond (b) Substitution of 6-chloro by —CF3 (c) Insertion of a benzyl group at position 5 (d) Insertion of a methyl group at position 2 (e) Saturation of 3, 4-double bond, insertion of a benzyl group at position 3, and substitution of 6-Cl by —CF3 12. Draw the structures of the following (a) Dimethyl-[3-phenyl-3-(2-pyridyl)-propyl]-amine (b) 4-amino-N-(2-diethyl-aminoethyl) benzamide (c) N1-(5-methyl iso oxazol-3-yl)-u1Ifanilamide (d) 2-(2-fluoro biphenyl-4-yl) propionic acid (e) (E)-2-(3-pyrrolidin-l-yl-l-(4-tolyl)prop-l-enyl)pyridine 13. Draw the structures of the major first phase metabolic products of the following drugs by the given route. (a) Phenobaritone-by aromatic hydroxylation (b) Procaine — by hydrolysis (c) Imipramine — by N-mono dealkylation (d) Nor-epinephrine- by oxidative deamination (e) 6-merceptopurine — by oxidation 14. Name the enzymes that catalyze the following reactions (a) Acetoacetyl CoA - Acetyl CoA (b) Oxaloacetate - Malate (c) Riboflavin - Flavin mononucleotide (d) HMG — CoA - Mevalonate (e) Glutamate - GABA 15. For the following drugs name the type of interaction and the molecule involved in exerting their pharmacological response (a) Captopril (b) Diltiazem (c) Diazepam (d) Rifampicin (e) Haloperidol 16. Name five components of an aerosol package 17. A drug solution has an initial potency of 125 mg I 5 ml. After storing for 30 days in a refrigerator, the potency is found to be 100 mg I 5 ml. what is the half life of the drug solution under these conditions? The drug undergoes first order kinetics. Give the equations and steps involved. 18. Name the five forces that can act between solid particles in Tablet manufacture. 19. (a) Give four reasons for pH adjustment in parenteral preparations (b) In which year was the Pharmacy Council of India first constituted by the Central Government? 20. In five different patients, deficiency of vitamins were diagnosed. The diagnosis were (a) Scurvy (b) Wet or dry Beriberi (c) Inflamed tongue, glossitis (d) Pernicious anemia (e) Osteomalacia in adults 21. (a) Define Schick Test Toxin, IP. (b) What is it’s dose? (c) What is its’s pH? (d) Give it’s storage conditions (e) Define Schick control 22. The antibiotics VANCOMYCIN, CEFALEXIN, FUSIDIC ACID, ERYTHROMYCIN and BICYCLOMYCIN belong to one of the following classes. Include them in the appropriate class Cyclic dipeptide, 3-lactam, Macrolide, Tetracyclic triterpene, Glycopeptide. 1. This question consists of TWENTY-FIVE sub-questions (1.1 — 1.25) of ONE marks each. For each of these sub-questions, four possible alternatives (A, B, C and D) are given, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Indicate the correct answer by darkening the appropriate bubble against the question number on the left hand side of the Objective Response Sheet (ORS). You may use the answer book provided for any rough work, if needed. 1.1 Starting material used for the synthesis of L-Thyroxine is: (a) 2 amino-5-chloro acetophenone (b) phenyl alanine (c) 2 amino-5-chloro benzophenone (d) L-tyrosine 1.2 One of the following antianxiety agent is an azaspirodecanedione derivative. (a) Lorazepam (b) Cycloheptadiene (c) Meprobamate (d) Buspirone 1.3 Include the following drug under proper classification. NIFEDIPINE. (a) Quinoline derivative (b) Aryl piperidines (c) Iso Quinoline derivative (d) Pyridine derivative 1.4 Acetazolamide can be synthesized from one of the following intermediates. (a) 5 amino-2-mercapto-1, 3-thiazole (b) 5 amino-2-mercapto-1, 3, 4-thiadiazole (c) 5 amino-2-mercapto-1, 2, 3-thiadazole (d) 5 amino-2-mercapto-1, 3, 4-tetrazole 1.5 Choose the correct trichomes of Digitalis purpurea. (a) Numerous covering trichomes and a few glandular trichomes (b) Few covering trichomes (c) Few glandular trichomes and few covering trichomes (d) Few glandular trichomes 1.6 PANAXADIOL is a constituent of (a) Ginger (b) Jatamanst (c) Ginseng (d) Pepper 1.7 The plant harmone which shows specific effect on the cell division is: (a) Auxins (b) Abscisic Acid (c) Cytokin ins (d) Ethylene 1.8 One of the following condition is maintained in programmed temperature gas chromatography. (a) Temperature of the whole column is raised during analysis (b) Temperature at the sample injection system is raised (c) Temperature at the detector is gradually raised (d) Temperature at the recorder alone is raised 1.9 A BOLOMETER consists of (a) two metals welded together (b) a thin blackened platinum strip in an evacuated vessel (c) deuterated triglycine sulphate (d) tungsten wire 1.10 Choose the correct excipient for enhancing solubility in Tablet manufacture. (a) PEG (b) Microcrystalline cellulose (c) Talc (d) Lactose 1.11 Two or more ions present together can be determined successfully by polarograph even if their half wave potentials overlap or interfere by (a) titration (b) complexation (c) filtration (d) heating 1.12 One of the following is a selective. SEROTONIN reuptake inhibitor (a) Desipramine (b) Fluoxetine (c) Buspropion (d) Maprotiline 1.13 PLasmodial resistance of CHLOROQUINE is due to (a) induction of inactivating enzymes (b) change in receptor structure (c) increase in the activity of DNA repair mechanism (d) decreased carrier mediated drug transport 1.14 One of the following actions of opioid analgesics is medicated via kappa receptors (a) Cerebral vascular dilation (b) Euphoria (c) Spinal analgesia (d) Physical dependence 1.15 One of the following drugs has activity against Herpes simplex virus type I and is used topically Systematic administration of the same results in bone marrow depression hepatic dysfunction and nephrotoxicity. (a) Acyclovir (b) Amantadine (c) Vadarabine (d) Idoxuridine 1.16 A woman has to be treated for upper respiratory tract infection. Six years back she was found hypersensitive to Penicillin V. The cultures now reveal a strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae that is sensitive to all of the following drugs. Which one would be the best choice for the patient? (a) Amoxicillin (b) Erythromycin (c) Cefaclor (d) Cyclacillin 1.17 The units of measurement for conductance is: (a) Ohms (b) Amperes (c) Mhos (d) Milli volts 1.18 The shells of soft gelatin capsules may be made elastic or plastic like, by the addition of (a) Sorbitol (b) Povidone (c) PEG (d) HPMC 1.19. The rate of drug bioavailability is most rapid when the drug is formulated as a (a) controlled released product (b) hard gelatin capsule (c) tablet (d) solution 1.20. The loading dose of a drug is usually based on (a) total body clearance of the drug (b) percentage of drug bound to plasma proteins (c) fraction of drug excreted unchanged in urine (d) apparent volume of distribution and desired drug concentration in plasma 1.21. BROWNE’s tubes are the mot commonly used chemical indicator for (a) Ethylene oxide sterilization (b) Radiation sterilization (c) Heat process sterilization (d) Filtration sterilization 1.22. A specimen obtained from a patient’s cerebrospinal fluid, cultured in specialized media for about five weeks showed the presence of bent rods and tested positive with Ziehi-Neelsen reagent. Identify the organism. (a) Niesseria meningitidis (b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (c) Bacteroides fragilis (d) Leptospira interrogans 1.23. Staphylococcus aureus is used for the I.P. assay of (a) Doxycycline (b) Bleomycin (c) Kanamycin (d) Carbenicillin 1.24. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members (a) Six (b) Nine (c) Five (d) Seven 1.25 Drug combination WARFARIN/VITAMIN-K results in a specific interaction. Identify. (a) Antagonistic (b) Increased sedation (c) No known interaction (d) Harmful only in the presence of oxidizing agent 2. This question consists of TWENTY-FIVE sub-questions (2.1 — 2.25) of TWO marks each. For each of these sub-questions, four possible alternatives (A,B, C and D) are given, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Indicate the correct answer by darkening the appropriate bubble against the question number on the left hand side of the Objective Response Sheet (ORS). You may use the answer book provided for any rough work, if needed. 2.1 In the glucuronidation reaction of OXAZEPAM — the functional group responsible is: (a) —OH (b) —COOH (c) —SH (d)—NH2 2.2. Benzhydryl bromide when treated with 2-dimethyl amino ethanol in presence of K2C03 gives one of the following. (a) 2-diphenyl ethoxy-N, N-dimethyl ethylamine (b) 2-diphenyl methoxy-N, N-diethyl ethylamine (c) 2-diphenyl methoxy-N, N-dimethyl ethylamine (d) 2-diphenyl methoxy-N, N-diethyl methylamine 2.3. DEMECLOCYCLINE differs from CHLORTETRACYCLINE only by (a) absence of—CH3 group on carbon 6 (b) presence of—OH group on carbon 6 CH3 (c) absence of—N/ group on carbon 4 ci-13 (d) absence of OH group on carbon 3 2.4. Choose the IUPAC name for CARBAMAZEPINE. (a) 5 [3-(dimethylamino) ethyl] 10-11 dihydro-5H dibenz [b, f] azepine (b) 5 H dibenz [b, f] azepine-5-carboxamide (c) 5 H dibenz [b, f] azepine-5-acid chloride (d) 5 [3-dimethylamino) propyl] 10-11 dihydro-5H dibenz [b, f] azepine 2.5. RESERPINE is derived from (a) Squalene (b) Homoserine (c) Tryptophan and Tryptamine (d) Asparagine 2.6. An alkaloid from Atropa belladonna having the molecular formula C17H2303N having xD-22° when warmed with ethanolic alkaline solution is converted into (a) (-) Hyoscyamine (b) (±) Hyoscyamine (c) (+) Hyosamine (d) (±) Hyoscine 2.7. Choose the appropriate description for ERGOT. (a) Loosely arranged or in small more or less agglutinated angular masses (b) A pseudoparenchyma formed by the interwoven closely appressed compact septate hyphae. (c) The crystocarps have fallen out leaving corresponding oval perforations in the ramuli. (d) Colourless septate hyphae about one quarter the width of a cotton trichome and they become twisted together. 2.8. Characteristic bands observed in the IR spectra of alcohols result from (a) —OH and C—O stretching (b) —OH stretching (c) C—O stretching only (d) C—H bending only 2.9. Bulking agent used for parenteral preparation is: (a) Sodium metabisulphite (b) Benzyl alcohol (c) Carbolic acid (d) Sorbitol 2.10. Identify the correct Non-flammable propellant. (a) Trichloro monofluromethane (b) Dichloro monofluromethane (c) Dimethyl ether (d) Difluoromethane 2.11. Elastomer used in rubber stopper formulation is: (a) Polybutadene (b) Butyl stearate (c) Titanium dioxide (d) Butylated hydroxyl toluene 2.12. Schedule D as per D and C Act is concerned with (a) list of drugs exempted from the provision of import of drugs (b) diseases or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure (c) requirements of factory premises (d) list of prescription drugs 2.13. Official method for the analysis of CIPROFLOXACIN is by (a) Potentiometry (b) HPLC (c) Gas chromatography (d) Non-aqueous titration 2.14. The radio frequency radiation is associated with (a) Light consisting of one colour only (b) Nuclear magnetic Resonance (c) Mass Spectrometry (d) E.S.R. 2.15. How many gms of a drug should be used in preparing 500 ml of a 1 : 2500 solution? (a) 0.2 (b) 0.02 (c) 0.4 (d) 1.25 2.16. The pyroelectric detector converts electromagnetic radiation into (a) electrical signal (b) fluorescence (c) electrons (d) visible light 2.17. The mechanism of action of DIGITALIS is (a) decreases intracellular sodium concentration (b) inhibits sodium potassium ATPase (c) activates adenyl cyclase which produces cAMP (d) decreases release of calcium from sarcoplasmic reticulum 2.18. The mechanism of action of DACTINOMYCIN is: (a) Inhibits topoisomerase II (b) Cross links DNA (c) Inhibition function of microtubules (d) Inhibits DNA polymerase 2.19. One of the drugs when co-administered with TERFENADINE may lead to life threatening cardiac dysrhythmia. (a) Lomefloxacin (b) Clofazimine (c) Itraconozole (d) Neomycin 2.20. Adverse effects of one of the drugs include amenorrhea, bone marrow depression, gastrointestinal distress and haemorrhagic distress, identify. (a) Cyclizine (b) Pyroxicam (c) Cyclophosphamide (d) Cimetidine 2.21. Varicella zoster is the causative organism for (a) small pox (b) dermatophytosis (c) herpes (d) infectious monocucleosis 2.22. One of the following is confirmed by DNA diagnosis test. (a) Hyperuricaema (b) Cystic fibrosis (c) Acute pancreatitis (d) Hyper lipidaemia 2.23. The conversion of Fructose-i, 6-biphosphate to Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is catalysed by (a) Phospho-glycerate kinase (b) Enolase (C) Aldolase (d) Triose phosphate isomerase 2.24. MORPHINE undergoes microsomal oxidation by (a) N-dealkylation (b) Aromatic hydroxylation (c) Oxidative deamination (d) 0-dealkylation 2.25. SULFASALAZINE is a prodrug that is activated in the intestine by bacterial enzymes. The enzyme responsible is: (a) Azoreductase (b) Choline esterase (c) Glucuronyl transferase (d) Amylase SECTION - B This section consists of TWENTY questions of FIVE marks each. Attempt ANY FIFTEEN questions. Answers must be given in the answer book provided. Answer for each question must start on a fresh page and must appear at one place only. (Answers to all parts of a question must appear together). 3. (a) Which is the active isomer of dimethyl stilbestrol? (b) Inhibition or decreased enzyme activity can result from different types of interaction namely: (i) Non-covalent interaction between the enzyme and drug. (ii) Covalent interaction between the enzyme and drug. (iii) Mutually exclusive binding of the substtate and inhibitor. (iv) Binding on an allosteric site on the enzyme. 4. Complete the following reactions by giving appropriate structures: (a) 2, 6-dimethyl aniline is treated with chloroacetyl chloride (b) Product at (a) is treated with dimethylamine to get the final product. (c) What is the generic name of the final product? 5. Complete the following by giving appropriate structures at A, B, C, D, E. C H OH C H ONa 16O - 17OC C H ONa H N C NH HSO COOCH CHB HSO HSO Benzyl cyanide COOC2H, 6. Following modifications of the prototypes of HYDROCORTISONE represent attempts to increase glucocorticoid activity while decreasing mineralocorticoid activity: (a) Introduction of double bond at C1 and C2. (b) Fluorination at C9. (c) Introduction of double bond at C1 and C2 with fluorination at C9. (d) Double bond C1 and C2, fluorination at C9 and a hydroxyl at C16. (e) Double bond at C1 and C2, fluorination at C9, a methyl at C16. Give the generic names of the products formed. 7. (a) Name the part of Syzygium aromaticum which is used officially as the drug. (b) Where does the ovary situated in the above drug. (c) Which type of typical stomata is present in the above drug. (d) The G.C. analysis of the volatile oil from the above drug gives two characteristic major peaks. Name the probable constituents. 8. PAPAVERINE an alkaloid of molecular formula C2QH2104N undergoes degradation reactions. Give only the structural formulae of the products formed in the following reactions. (a) With hot concentrated Potassium permanganate (b) With cold dilute Potassium permanganate 9. Following statements are characteristic for particular terms used. Identify and name the terms: (a) In plant breeding it is a possible means of combining in a single variety the desirable characters of two or more lines, variety or species and occasionally of producing new and desirable characters not found in either parent. (b) Changes in the genetic make up of the plant. (c) Chromosomes can be grouped not in pairs, but in threes, fours or higher numbers. (d) Plants occur with one or more chromosomes extra to the somatic number (e) Plant protoplasts which can be maintained in culture and can be induced to fuse either with others of the same or different species. 83. Suggest a suitable dosage form (A) Solution (B) Suspension (C) Emulsion (D)Capsule 84. Suggest a substance to be incorporated into the formulation (A) Glycerine (B) Acacia (C) Cetrimide (D)Alcohol 85. Select one of the appropriate labeling directions (A) Keep in the refrigerator (B) No preservatives added (C) Schedule ‘G’ (D) Shake well before use Data for questions 86 and 87: Successive solvent extraction of a crude drug with petroleum ether, benzene, chloroform, ethyl alcohol and water was performed. Qualitative chemical testing of petroleum ether extract gave positive Keller-Kiliani and Salkowski’s reactions. Ethyl alcohol and aqueous extract gave positive FeCI3 reaction and acqueous extract gave foamy solution 86. What constituents are present in the petroleum ether/benzene extract? (A) Plant sterols (B) Tropane alkaloids (C) Sesquiterpenoids (D) Purines 87. What constituents are present in the ethyl alcohol and aqueous extracts? (A) Plants lipids (B) Anthraquinone glycosides (C) Alkaloids (D) Plant phenols and saponins Data for questions 88 to 90: A business executive while playing tennis complained of chest pain and ws brought to emergency room. He has history of mild hypertension and elevated blood cholesterol. ECG changes confirmed the diagnosis of myocardial infraction. The decision is made to open his occluded artery by using thrombolytic agent and also use aspirin later. 88. The thrombolytic agent used is (A) heparin (B) warfarin (C) anistreplase (D)vit. K 89. Mechanism of action of aspirin is (A) inhibit vitamin K absorption (B) antithrombin activity (C) inhibit metabolism of heparin (D) inhibit platelet aggregation 90. Mechanism of action of antithrombic lagent is (A) conversion of plasminogen to plasmin (B) activation of clotting factors (C) inhibit platelet function (D) agonist of vitamin K 1. This question consists of TWENTY-FIVE sub-questions (1.1 — 1.25) of ONE marks each. For each of these sub-questions, four possible alternatives (A,B, C and D) are given, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Indicate the correct answer by darkening the appropriate bubble against the question number on the left hand side of the Objective Response Sheet (ORS). You may use the answer book provided for any rough work, ifneeded. 1.1 Volatile oil from Lemon peels contains d-limonene which is (a) Phenyl propane derivative (b) Bicyclic monoterpene derivative (c) Monocyclic monoterpene derivative (d) Acyclic sesquiterpene derivative 1.2 In case of Digitalis purpurea, he cardiac activity is maximum with (a) Odoroside-H (b) Digoxin (c) Digitoxin (d) Pupurea glycoside A 1.3 Dragendorif’s reagent does not give a positive test with (a) Emetine (b) Morphine (c) Caffeine (d) Codeine 1.4 The instrument used to measure particle volume is (a) Coulter Counter (b) Microscope (c) Hempel Burette (d) Helium Densitometer 1.5 The purpose of seal coating in sugar coating process for tablets is (a) To prevent moisture penetration into the tablet core (b) To round the edges and build up the tablet weight (c) To impart the desired colour to the tablet (d) To give luster to the tablet 1.6 The phenomenon of increasing the solubility of weak electrolytes and non-polar molecules by the addition of a water miscible solvent in which the drug has good solubility is called (a) Complexation (b) Cosolvency (c) Solubilization (d) Hydrotrophy 1.7 HLB system is used to classify (a) Surfactants (b) Preservatives (c) Antioxidants (d) Sequestering agents 1.8 The statement “Store in a cool place” as per I.P. means (a) Store at room temperature (b) Store between 2° to 8°C (c) Store at any temperature between 8° to 25°C (d) Store at 0°C 1.9 Durability of a tablet to combined effects of shock and abrasion is evaluated by using (a) Hardness tester (b) Disintegration test apparatus (c) Friabilator (d) Screw Gauge 1.10 Ion exchange capacity of a resin is dependent on (a) The total molecular weight of the resin (b) The total number of ion active groups (c) Length of the ion exchange resin (d) Solubility of the ion exchange resin 1.11 In mass spectra, the most intense peak is the (a) Base peak (b) Metastable ion peak (c) Fragment ion peak (d) Rearrangement ion peak 1.12 Chemical shift is expressed in one of the following units (a) cm1 (b) Amperes (c) parts per million (d) mm I ml 1.13 Xenon arc lamp is the source of light in (a) Spectrofluorimeter (b) JR Spectrophotometer (c) Flame photometer (d) Calorimeter 1.14 Which of the following pairs has an interaction beneficial for routine clinical use (a) Pseudoephedrine and Aluminium hydroxide gel (b) Tetracycline and Milk of Magnesia (c) MAO inhibitors and Tyramine (d) Chloramphenicol and Tolubutamide 1.15 Measurement of which of the following two constituents of human plasma is of great value in the differential diagnosis of rheumatoid diseases (a) Rheumatoid factor and immunoglobulin G (b) Rheumatoid factor and C-reactive protein (c) HL-A antigen and C-reactive protein (d) Immunoglobulin and bradykinin 1.16 Which of the following is a valid comparison of live attenuated vaccines versus killed inactivated vaccines (a) Hypersensitivity reactions are uncommon among inactivated vaccines (b) Live attenuated vaccines are more effective in children (c) Live attenuated vaccines are not suitable for pediatric use (d) Replication of the organisms in a live attenuated vaccine increases the stimulation of the immune system thereby requiring a lower dose 1.17 An antineoplastic agent acting by folate antagonism and having a pteridine ring is: (a) Trimethoprim (b) Mercaptopurine (c) Methotrexate (d) Folic Acid 1.18 One of the following drugs has 1, 4-dihydropyridine structure, a tertiary amino group in the side chain and Ca channel antagonist action (a) Nitrodipine (b) Nicardinpine (c) Verapamil (d) Captopril 1.19. JUPAC name for one of the steroidal anti-inflammatory agents is 9c-Fluoro- 1 113, l6cL, l7cL,2 1-tetrahydroxy- 1,4-Pregnadiene-3,20-dione (a) Prednisolone (b) Betamethasone (c) Triamcinolone (d) Dexamethasone 1.20. CLOFAZIMINE belongs to a class of (a) Rhiminophenazines (b) Aryl piperazines (c) Phenothiazines (d) Benzyl piperazines 1.21. One of the drugs is an odd one in terms of its biological action (a) Diethyl Stilbestrol (b) Tamoxifen (c) Ethynyl Estradiol (d) Mestranol 1.22. The key intermediates for the synthesis of TIMOLOL are (a) 3, 4-dichloro-1, 2, 5-thiadiazole and morpholine (b) 3, 4-dichloro-1, 2, 5-thiadiazole and piperazine (c) 3, 4-dibromo-1, 2, 5-thiadiazole and piperazine (d) 3-Chloro-1, 2, 5-thiadiazole and morpholine 1.23. One of the following drugs interrupts the synthesis of thyroid hormones by preventing iodine incorporation into the tyrosyl residue of thyroglobulin (a) Levothyroxine (b) Liothyronine (c) Propyl thiouracil (d) Triiodo thyronine 1.24. Macrolide antibiotics exert their action by (a) Inhibiting transcription (b) Altering the genetic code (c) Terminating protein synthesis prematurely (d) Post-translational modification 1.25 One of the following is a selective 132 stimulant (a) Caffeine (b) Salbutamol (c) Propranolol (d) Betahistine 2. This question consists of TWENTY-FIVE sub-questions (2.1 — 2.25) of TWO marks each. For each of these sub-questions, four possible alternatives (A,B, C and D) are given, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Indicate the correct answer by darkening the appropriate bubble against the question number on the left hand side of the Objective Response Sheet (ORS). You may use the answer book provided for any rough work, if needed. 2.1 Cascoriside A is an example of (a) 0-Glycoside (b) C-Glycoside (c) N- and 5- Glycoside (d) 0- and C- Glycoside 2.2. Precursor for the biosynthesis of Tropane group of alkaloids is (a) Leucine (b) Lysine (c) Ornithine (d) Tyrosine 2.3. The extraction of steroidal saponins on commercial scale is from (a) Dioscorea (b) Digitalis (c) Datura (d) Trigonella 2.4. Rauwolfia serpentine Benth., can be distinguished from other adulterants/substitutes of Rauwolfia spp. by (a) presence of starch grains (b) Presence of calcium oxa late crystals (c) Presence of trichomes (d) Presence of sclereids 2.5. Schedule FF contains the list of the following (a) Drugs which can be marked under generic names only (b) Drugs which are habit forming (c) Standards for ophthalmic preparation (d) Drugs which are exempt from certain provisions applicable to manufacturing 2.6. One of the following equation is used to predict the stability of a drug product at room temperature from experiments at accelerated temperature (a) Stokes equation (b) Arrhenius equation (c) Yong equation (d) Michaelis-Menten equation 2.7. One of the following apparatus is used to determine the particle size by the gravity sedimentation method (a) Pyknometer (b) Ostwald viscometer (c) Andreasen apparatus (d) Friabilator 2.8. One of the following mills works on both the principles of attrition and impact (a) Cutter mill (b) Hammer mill (c) Roller mill (d) Fluid energy mill 2.9. A commonly used antioxidant for oil system is (a) Butylated hydroxyl toluene (b) Ascorbic acid (c) Sodium metabisulfite (d) Thioglycol 2.10. In Digitalis glycoside c7 position of the steroidal ring is substituted by (a) c-13 unsaturated five membered lactone ring (b) c-I3 unsaturated six membered lactone ring (c) c-I3 unsaturated six membered ring (d) c-13 unsaturated five membered lactam ring 2.11. Metoprolol is sometimes preferred to Propranolol because (a) It has both c and 13 adrenergic blockade (b) It has both vasodilatory properties and 13 adrenergic blockade (c) It has a 13i selective antagonist and it does not enter the brain (d) It is a 132 selective antagonist 2.12. The major product formed by the condensation of 2-trifluoro methyl phenothiazine with sodamide and 1-(3-chloropropyl-4-methyl piperazine). (a) Trifluoperidol (b) Trifluoperazine (c) Trifluopromazine (d) Trifluophenothiazine 2.13. One of the following statements is characteristic for natural estrogens (a) Aromatic ring with phenolic group and an estrange nucleus (b) Aromatic ring with an alcoholic group and a pregnane nucleus (c) Reduced ring system belonging to the class estrane (d) Reduced ring system belonging to the class pregnane 2.14. One of the following opioid peptides is released from pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC) (a) Somatostatin (b) Beta-endorphin (c) Leu-enkephalin (d) Dynorphin 2.15. The ultra short-acting barbiturates have brief duration of action due to (a) High degree of binding to plasma proteins (b) Low lipid solubility resulting in a minimal concentration in the brain (c) Metabolism is slow in the liver (d) Rapid rate of redistribution from the brain due to its high liposolubility 2.16. Derivatisation is done in GC (a) To convert a less polar compound to a more polar compound (b) To make the compound non-volatile (c) To convert a polar compound to a less polar compound (d) To liquify a solid 2.17. Qualitative analysis by polarography is based on (a) Electrode potential (b) Half wave potential (c) Migration current (d) Limiting current 2.18. The stationary phase used in gel permeation chromatography is (a) Alumina (b) Charcoal (c) Squalene (d) Styrene divinyl benzyl co-polymer 2.19. A conductivity cell consists of (a) Two platinised-platinum electrodes (b) A platinum-calomel electrode system (c) A platinum-tungsten electrode system (d) A glass-calomel electrode system 2.20. A typical example of exotoxin is (a) Lipid - A (b) Cytokine (c) Tetanospasmin (d) Tuberculin 2.21. A specimen isolated from a patient suffering from septicemia was found to be a strict aerobe. Its culture vial had a characteristic grape like odour and it was susceptible to carbenicillin. Identify the organism. (a) Pseudomonas fluorescens (b) Salmonella typhi (c) Staphylococcus aureus (d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa 2.22. The pKa of lidocaine is 7.9. If the pH of the infected tissue is 8.9, the fraction of the drug in the ionized form will be (a) 1% (b) 10% (c) 90% (d) 99% 2.23. The drug regimen useful in the treatment of both intestinal and extra-intestinal symptoms of amoebiasis orally is (a) Diloxanide and lodoquinol (b) Paramomycin and Mefloquine (c) Metronidazole and Diloxanide (d) Chloroquine alone 2.24. The drug NIFEDIPINE can be synthesized from (a) o-nitro benzaldehyde, methyl acetoacetate and ammonia (b) p-nitro benzaldehyde, methyl acetoacetate and ammonia (c) o-nitro benzaldehyde, ethyl acetoacetate and methylamine (d) p-nitro benzaldehyde, methyl acetoacetate and methylamine 2.25. Methyl malonyl CoA mutase which catalyzes the conversion of propionyl CoA to succinyl CoA utilizes the prosthetic group derived from (a) Cyanocobalamine (b) Pyridoxine (c) Thiamine (d) Nicotinamide 42. Rotation of electrons about the proton generates a secondary magnetic field which may oppose the applied magnetic filed. The portion is then said to be (A) shielded (B) shifted (C) hydrogen bonded (D) deshielded 43. The analyte is used in the form of a solution in flame photometry because it should undergo (A) evaporation (B) condensation (C) nebulisation (D) precipitation 44. The mechanism of antiparasitic action of Mebendazole and thiabendazole involves (A) stimulation of acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions (B) inhibition of dihydropolate red uctase (C) interference with microtubule synthesis and assembly (D) block thiamine transport 45. Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that (A) requires pyridoxine supplementation (B) causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued (C) is ototoxic and nephrotoxic (D) should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential 46. Decreased risk of Atherosclerosis is associated with increase in (A) very low density lipoproteins (B) low density lipoproteins (C) cholesterol (D) high density lipoproteins 47. The mechanism of action of Paclitaxel is (A) bind to DNA through intercalation between specific bases and block the synthesis of new RNA or DNA, cause DNA strand scission (B) mitotic spindle poison through the enhancement of tubulin polymerization (C) competitive partial agonist — inhibitor of estrogen and binds to estrogen receptors (D) S-Phase specific antimetabolite that is converted by deoxykinase to the 5’- mono n u I eot i d 48. Lycopodium spore method can be used to find out percentage purity of crude drugs which contain (A) multi-layered tissues or cells (B) well defined particles which can be counted (C) oil globules (D) characteristic particles of irregular thickness, the length of which can be measured 49. The microscopical character of flower buds of Eugenia caryophyllus is (A) collenchymatous parenchyma containing in its outer part numerous ellipsoidal schizolysigenous oil glands (B) small translucent endosperm containing aleurone grains (C) wide parenchymatous starchy cortex, the endosperm containing volatile oil (D) outer surface consisting of external perisperm, rough, dark brown with reticulate furrows 50. In protein biosynthesis, each amino acid (A) recognizes its own codon by a direct interaction with the m-RNA template (B) is added in its proper place toa growing peptide chain throught he “adaptor” function of t- RNA (C) is first attached to an anticodon specific for the amino acid (D) undergoes fidelity translation which is assured by the presence of traces of DNA on the ribosome 51. Rabies Antiserum I.P. is a (A) a freeze dried preparation containing antitoxic globulin (B) a preparation containing specific globulin or its derivatives obtained by purification of hyperimmune serum or plasma of healthy horses (C) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulin (D) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulins obtained by purification of hyperimmune serum of horses Q.52-58 are multiple selection items. P, Q, R, S are the options. Two of these options are correct. Choose the correct combination among A, B, C and D. 52. Total ash value in case of crude drug signifies (P) organic content of the drug (Q) mineral matter in the drug (R) addition of extraneous matter such as sand, stone etc. (S) woody matters present in the drug (A) R, S (B) Q, R (C) P. Q (D)P, S 53. The compounds listed below contain c, t and i electrons (P) Acetaldehyde (Q) Butadiene (R) Formaldehyde (S) Benzene (A) P, S (B) Q, R (C) P. R (D)Q, S 54. A 60 year old patient presents with glaucoma. Therapy should include (P) topical atropine (Q) topical pilocarpine (R) oral acetazolamide (S) oral pilocarpine (A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S 55. Measurement of particle size in pharmaceutical Aerosols is by (P) Cascade impactor (Q) light scatter decay (R) Karl-Fischer method (5) JR spectrophotometry (A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S 56. The common attributes of ascorbic acid, an antiscrobutic vitamin, are (P) exist in nature in both reduced and oxidized form and in a state of reversible eq u i Ii b ri u m (Q) has a keto-enol system in the molecule (R) has an aldehyde group since it gives positive Schiff’s reaction (5) salt forming properties are due to the presence of free carboxyl group (A) P, R (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, Q 57. Two properties of Radiopharmaceuticals are (P) slow localization in target tissue (Q) very long half-life to provide enough exposure to get imaging information (R) short half-life to minimize radiation exposure yet long enough to get imaging information (5) rapid localization in target tissue and quick clearance from non-target organs (A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S 58. Two correct statements concerning vitamin D are (P) the active molecule 1, 25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol binds to intracellular receptor proteins (Q) cholecalciferol is found in vegetables (R) 1, 25-dihydroxy-D3 is the most potent vitamin D metabolite (S) it is required in the diet of individuals exposed to sunlight (A) P, S (B) P, R (C) R, S (D)Q, S Group I Group II (Tablet Additives) (Examples) (P) Binder (1) Acacia (Q) Insoluble lubricant (2) Light mineral oil (R) Film coating material (3) Hydroxy ethyl cellulose (5) Direct compression diluent (4) Microcrystalline cellulose (A) P-2 Q-3 R- 1 S-4 (B) P-4 Q-1 R-2 S-3 (C) P-4 Q-3 R-2 S-1 (D) P-2 Q-3 R-4 S-1 61. Group I Group II (JR Detectors ) (Composition) (P) Thermocouple (1) Oxides of Mn, CO and Ni (Q) Pyroelectric Detector (2) Bi-Sb (R) Golay cells (3) Xenon (5) Thermistor (4) Triglycine sulphate (A)P-4Q-3R-1S-2 (B)P-3Q-4R-2S-1 (C)P-1Q-2R-3S-4 (D)P-3Q-4R-1S-2 62 Group I Group II (Alkaloid ) (Ring system) (P) Coniine (1) Isoquinoline (Q) Papaverine (2) Pyridine-Piperidine (R) Anabasine (3) Yohimbane (S) Reserpine (4) Piperidine (A) P - 4 Q - 3 R - 2 S - 1 (B) P - 2 Q - 4 R - 3 S - 1 (C) P - 3 Q - 4 R - 1 S - 2 (D) P - 2 Q - 1 R - 1 5 - 3 63. Group I Group II (Immunoglobulins (Actions) [Ig]) (P) IgG (1) Agglutinating and cytolytic (Q) IgA (2) Antiallergic (R) 1gM () .[eutralises toxins (S) IgE (4) Antimicrobial (A) P-4 Q-3 R- 1 S-2 (B) P-1 Q-4 R- 2 S-3 (B) P-4 Q-1 R- 3 S-2 (D) P-3 Q-1 R-4 S-2 64 Group I Group II (Antibiotics) (Microorganism used in I.P. assay) (P) Streptomycin (1) Bacillus cereus (Q) Erythromycin (2) Stahylococcus epidermidis (R) Gentamycin (3) Klebsiella pneumoniae (S) Tetracycline (4) Micrococcus luteus (A)P-3Q-2R-1S-4 (B)P-2Q-3R-45-1 (C)P-2Q-1R-35-4 (D)P-4Q-2R-35-1 Data for Q.66 — 90 are based on the statement/problem. Choose the correct answer for each question from among the options A, B, C and D. Data for questions 66 to 68: Leaves of Digitalis purpurea were subjected to morphological, microscopical and chemical screening. (A) P (C) P Group I (Synthetic Group II estrogtenic_drugs_ (Methods of synthesis) ) (1) 4, 4’ Dimethoxy benzophenone is treated with 4- methoxy benzoyl (P) Ethinyl chloride + Mg, resulting product is treated with PTS followed by Cl2 + estradiol Cd4 (2) Deoxyanisoin is alkylated and product subjected to Grignard (Q) Dienoestrol reaction, the resulting tertiary alcohol is dehydrated and demethylated with alcoholic KOH (R) Chlorotrianisine (3) By Pinacol reduction of p-hydroxy propiophenone and subsequent removal of water (5) Stilboestrol (4) From Estrone by the action of Potassium acetylide Group I Group II (Immunosuppressants (Mechanism of action) ) (P) Azathioprine (1) Destroys proliferating lymphoid cells (Q) Tacrolimus (2) Prodrug transformed to mercaptopurine which on further conversion inhibits purine metabolism (R) Glucocorticoids (3) Inhibits the cytoplasmic phosphatase Calcineurin (5) Cyclophosphamide (4) Interferes with the cell cycle of activated lymphoid cells 66. Morphological character with respect to the leaf is (A) ovate lanceolate with entire margin (B) ovate lanceolate with crenate margin (C) linear lanceolate with serrate margin (D) linear lanceolate with sinuate margin 67. Microscopical character of trichomes is (A) unicellular, warty (B) multicellular, uniseriate with 2-7 cells (C) multicellular, uniseriate with 10-14 cells (D) multicellular, multiseriate with 10-14 cells 68. The drug gives positive (A) Borntrager’s test (B) Murexide test (C) Legal’s test (D) Thaleoquin test Data for questions 69 and 70: In a synthetic procedure 5-chloro-2,1 4-cIiamino sulfomyl aniline is treated with P to obtain 7- amino sulfomyl-6-chloro--ciildro-methyl-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazin-1:1 dioxide. Subsequently it is refluxed with C6H5-CH2-SH + NaOH + DMF to yield Y. 69. Select the reagent P (A) Chloroacetyldehyde (B) Formaldehyde (C) Formic acid (D) Acetaldehyde 70. The final product Y is (A) 3-benzyl methyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide (B) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxide (C) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide (D) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxide Data for questions 70 to 73: Proguanil is synthesized by diazotization of p-chloroaniline and treating with dicynamide to yield p-chlorophenyldicyandiamide which is converted to Proguanil by reaction with an aliphatic amine. Proguanil is metabolized to a triazine derivative which is an active metabolite. 71. What is the reagent used for diazotization? (A) NaNO2 + dilute HCI (B) KNO3 + dilute H2S04 (C) Zn + dilute H2S04 (D) Tin + H2S04 72. Name the aliphatic amine used (A) Dimethylamine (B) Isopropylamine (C) Isobutylamine (D) Diethylamine 73. Name the metabolite (A) Thioguanil (B) Diguanil (C) Cycloguanil (D) p-chlorophenyl biguanide Data for questions 74 to 76: Calculate the 2max for the following compounds. Base value for Benzaldehyde in ethanol is 250 mm. 74. 2max of p-promobenzaldehyde in nm is (A) 265 (B) 255 (C) 275 (D)260 75. 2max of p-hydroxy benzaldehyde in nm is (A) 253 (B) 275 (C) 261 (D)270 76. 2max of o-chlorobenzaldehyde in nm is (A) 275 (B) 265 (C) 255 (D)250 Data for questions 77 and 78: In the assay of Folic acid I.P., a weighed quantity is dissolved in 0.1 M NaOH solution and subsequently treated with Zn and HCI. The resulting product is mixed with ammonium sulphamate, kept for 2 minutes and a reagent is added to get final coloured product whose absorbance is measured 77. Select the product obtained when folic acid is heated with Zn + HCI (A) Benzoic acid (B) p-aminobenzoic acid (C) Glutamic acid (D) Succinic acid 78. Select the reagent used for the development of colour (A) N-1-naphthyl ethylene diamine didydrochloride (B) Ninhydrin reagent (C) p-dimethylamino benzaldehyde (D) Phloroglucinol Data for questions 79 and 80: Parkinsonism is a common neurological movement disorder. Signs include rigidity of skeletal muscles, akinesia, flat facies and tremors at rest. Both L-DOPA and Carbidopa are used. 79. Carbidopa is used because (A) it crosses blood brain barrier (B) it inhibits aromatic L-aminoacid decarboxylase (C) it inhibits MAO type A (D) it inhibits MAO type B 80. Select the specific unwanted effect of L-DOPA (A) Dementia (B) Hypertension (C) Dyskinesia (D) Excitotoxicity Data for questions 81 and 82: The decomposition of a drug in aqueous acid solution was found to follow first order reaction. The initial concentration was found to be 0.056 M. The concentration after a period of 12 hours was 4.10 x 10-2 moles/litre. The reaction rate constant is 0.02599 - h r1. 42. Rotation of electrons about the proton generates a secondary magnetic field which mayoppose the applied magnetic filed. The portion is then said to be(A) shielded(B) shifted(C) hydrogen bonded(D) deshielded43. The analyte is used in the form of a solution in flame photometry because itshould undergo(A) evaporation(B) condensation(C) nebulisation(D) precipitation44. The mechanism of antiparasitic action of Mebendazole and thiabendazole involves(A) stimulation of acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions(B) inhibition of dihydropolate red uctase(C) interference with microtubule synthesis and assembly(D) block thiamine transport45. Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that(A) requires pyridoxine supplementation(B) causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued(C) is ototoxic and nephrotoxic(D) should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential46. Decreased risk of Atherosclerosis is associated with increase in(A) very low density lipoproteins(B) low density lipoproteins(C) cholesterol(D) high density lipoproteins47. The mechanism of action of Paclitaxel is(A) bind to DNA through intercalation between specific bases and block the synthesis of newRNA or DNA, cause DNA strand scission(B) mitotic spindle poison through the enhancement of tubulin polymerization(C) competitive partial agonist — inhibitor of estrogen and binds to estrogen receptors(D) S-Phase specific antimetabolite that is converted by deoxykinase to the 5’- mono n u I eoti d48. Lycopodium spore method can be used to find out percentage purity of crude drugs whichcontain(A) multi-layered tissues or cells(B) well defined particles which can be counted(C) oil globules(D) characteristic particles of irregular thickness, the length of which can be measured49. The microscopical character of flower buds of Eugenia caryophyllus is(A) collenchymatous parenchyma containing in its outer part numerous ellipsoidalschizolysigenous oil glands(B) small translucent endosperm containing aleurone grains(C) wide parenchymatous starchy cortex, the endosperm containing volatile oil(D) outer surface consisting of external perisperm, rough, dark brown with reticulate furrows50. In protein biosynthesis, each amino acid(A) recognizes its own codon by a direct interaction with the m-RNA template(B) is added in its proper place toa growing peptide chain throught he “adaptor” function of t-RNA(C) is first attached to an anticodon specific for the amino acid(D) undergoes fidelity translation which is assured by the presence of traces of DNA on theribosome51. Rabies Antiserum I.P. is a(A) a freeze dried preparation containing antitoxic globulin(B) a preparation containing specific globulin or its derivatives obtained by purification ofhyperimmune serum or plasma of healthy horses(C) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulin(D) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulins obtained by purification ofhyperimmune serum of horsesQ.52-58 are multiple selection items. P, Q, R, S are the options. Two of these options arecorrect. Choose the correct combination among A, B, C and D.52. Total ash value in case of crude drug signifies(P) organic content of the drug(Q) mineral matter in the drug(R) addition of extraneous matter such as sand, stone etc.(S) woody matters present in the drug(A) R, S (B) Q, R (C) P. Q (D)P, S53. The compounds listed below contain c, t and i electrons(P) Acetaldehyde(Q) Butadiene(R) Formaldehyde(S) Benzene(A) P, S (B) Q, R (C) P. R (D)Q, S54. A 60 year old patient presents with glaucoma. Therapy should include(P) topical atropine(Q) topical pilocarpine(R) oral acetazolamide(S) oral pilocarpine(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S55. Measurement of particle size in pharmaceutical Aerosols is by(P) Cascade impactor(Q) light scatter decay(R) Karl-Fischer method(5) JR spectrophotometry(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S56. The common attributes of ascorbic acid, an antiscrobutic vitamin, are(P) exist in nature in both reduced and oxidized form and in a state of reversible eq u i Ii b ri um(Q) has a keto-enol system in the molecule(R) has an aldehyde group since it gives positive Schiff’s reaction(5) salt forming properties are due to the presence of free carboxyl group(A) P, R (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, Q57. Two properties of Radiopharmaceuticals are(P) slow localization in target tissue(Q) very long half-life to provide enough exposure to get imaging information(R) short half-life to minimize radiation exposure yet long enough to get imaging information(5) rapid localization in target tissue and quick clearance from non-target organs(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S58. Two correct statements concerning vitamin D are(P) the active molecule 1, 25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol binds to intracellular receptor proteins(Q) cholecalciferol is found in vegetables(R) 1, 25-dihydroxy-D3 is the most potent vitamin D metabolite(S) it is required in the diet of individuals exposed to sunlight(A) P, S (B) P, R (C) R, S (D)Q, SGroup IGroup II(Tablet Additives)(Examples)(P) Binder (1) Acacia(Q) Insoluble lubricant (2) Light mineral oil(R) Film coating material (3) Hydroxy ethyl cellulose(5) Direct compressiondiluent (4) Microcrystalline cellulose(A) P-2 Q-3 R- 1 S-4(B) P-4 Q-1 R-2 S-3(C) P-4 Q-3 R-2 S-1(D) P-2 Q-3 R-4 S-161.Group IGroup II(JR Detectors )(Composition)(P) Thermocouple (1) Oxides of Mn, CO and Ni(Q) PyroelectricDetector (2) Bi-Sb(R) Golay cells (3) Xenon(5) Thermistor (4) Triglycine sulphate(A)P-4Q-3R-1S-2 (B)P-3Q-4R-2S-1(C)P-1Q-2R-3S-4 (D)P-3Q-4R-1S-262Group IGroup II(Alkaloid )(Ring system)(P) Coniine (1) Isoquinoline(Q)Papaverine (2) Pyridine-Piperidine(R) Anabasine (3) Yohimbane(S) Reserpine (4) Piperidine(A) P - 4 Q - 3 R - 2 S - 1(B) P - 2 Q - 4 R - 3 S - 1(C) P - 3 Q - 4 R - 1 S - 2(D) P - 2 Q - 1 R - 1 5 - 363.Group IGroup II(Immunoglobulins(Actions)[Ig])(P) IgG (1) Agglutinating and cytolytic(Q) IgA (2) Antiallergic(R) 1gM () .[eutralises toxins(S) IgE (4) Antimicrobial(A) P-4 Q-3 R- 1 S-2(B) P-1 Q-4 R- 2 S-3(B) P-4 Q-1 R- 3 S-2(D) P-3 Q-1 R-4 S-264Group IGroup II(Antibiotics)(Microorganism used in I.P. assay)(P) Streptomycin (1) Bacillus cereus(Q)Erythromycin (2) Stahylococcus epidermidis(R) Gentamycin (3) Klebsiella pneumoniae(S) Tetracycline (4) Micrococcus luteus(A)P-3Q-2R-1S-4(B)P-2Q-3R-45-1(C)P-2Q-1R-35-4(D)P-4Q-2R-35-1Data for Q.66 — 90 are based on the statement/problem. Choose the correct answer for eachquestion from among the options A, B, C and D.Data for questions 66 to 68:Leaves of Digitalis purpurea were subjected to morphological, microscopical and chemicalscreening.(A) P(C) PGroup I(SyntheticGroup IIestrogtenic_drugs_(Methods of synthesis))(1) 4, 4’ Dimethoxy benzophenone is treated with 4- methoxy benzoyl(P) Ethinylchloride + Mg, resulting product is treated with PTS followed by Cl2 +estradiolCd4(2) Deoxyanisoin is alkylated and product subjected to Grignard(Q) Dienoestrolreaction, the resulting tertiary alcohol is dehydrated and demethylatedwith alcoholic KOH(R) Chlorotrianisine (3) By Pinacol reduction of p-hydroxy propiophenone and subsequentremoval of water(5) Stilboestrol (4) From Estrone by the action of Potassium acetylideGroup IGroup II(Immunosuppressants(Mechanism of action))(P) Azathioprine (1) Destroys proliferating lymphoid cells(Q) Tacrolimus (2) Prodrug transformed to mercaptopurine which on furtherconversion inhibits purine metabolism(R) Glucocorticoids (3) Inhibits the cytoplasmic phosphatase Calcineurin(5) Cyclophosphamide (4) Interferes with the cell cycle of activated lymphoid cells66. Morphological character with respect to the leaf is(A) ovate lanceolate with entire margin(B) ovate lanceolate with crenate margin(C) linear lanceolate with serrate margin(D) linear lanceolate with sinuate margin67. Microscopical character of trichomes is(A) unicellular, warty(B) multicellular, uniseriate with 2-7 cells(C) multicellular, uniseriate with 10-14 cells(D) multicellular, multiseriate with 10-14 cells68. The drug gives positive(A) Borntrager’s test (B) Murexide test(C) Legal’s test (D) Thaleoquin testData for questions 69 and 70:In a synthetic procedure 5-chloro-2,1 4-cIiamino sulfomyl aniline is treated with P to obtain 7-amino sulfomyl-6-chloro--ciildro-methyl-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazin-1:1 dioxide. Subsequentlyit is refluxed with C6H5-CH2-SH + NaOH + DMF to yield Y.69. Select the reagent P(A) Chloroacetyldehyde (B) Formaldehyde(C) Formic acid (D) Acetaldehyde70. The final product Y is(A) 3-benzyl methyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide(B) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxide(C) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide(D) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxideData for questions 70 to 73:Proguanil is synthesized by diazotization of p-chloroaniline and treating with dicynamide toyield p-chlorophenyldicyandiamide which is converted to Proguanil by reaction with analiphatic amine. Proguanil is metabolized to a triazine derivative which is an active metabolite.71. What is the reagent used for diazotization?(A) NaNO2 + dilute HCI (B) KNO3 + dilute H2S04(C) Zn + dilute H2S04 (D) Tin + H2S0472. Name the aliphatic amine used(A) Dimethylamine (B) Isopropylamine(C) Isobutylamine (D) Diethylamine73. Name the metabolite(A) Thioguanil (B) Diguanil(C) Cycloguanil (D) p-chlorophenyl biguanideData for questions 74 to 76:Calculate the 2max for the following compounds. Base value for Benzaldehyde in ethanol is250 mm.74. 2max of p-promobenzaldehyde in nm is(A) 265 (B) 255 (C) 275 (D)26075. 2max of p-hydroxy benzaldehyde in nm is(A) 253 (B) 275 (C) 261 (D)27076. 2max of o-chlorobenzaldehyde in nm is(A) 275 (B) 265 (C) 255 (D)250Data for questions 77 and 78:In the assay of Folic acid I.P., a weighed quantity is dissolved in 0.1 M NaOH solution andsubsequently treated with Zn and HCI. The resulting product is mixed with ammoniumsulphamate, kept for 2 minutes and a reagent is added to get final coloured product whoseabsorbance is measured77. Select the product obtained when folic acid is heated with Zn + HCI(A) Benzoic acid (B) p-aminobenzoic acid(C) Glutamic acid (D) Succinic acid78. Select the reagent used for the development of colour(A) N-1-naphthyl ethylene diamine didydrochloride(B) Ninhydrin reagent(C) p-dimethylamino benzaldehyde(D) PhloroglucinolData for questions 79 and 80:Parkinsonism is a common neurological movement disorder. Signs include rigidity of skeletalmuscles, akinesia, flat facies and tremors at rest. Both L-DOPA and Carbidopa are used.79. Carbidopa is used because(A) it crosses blood brain barrier(B) it inhibits aromatic L-aminoacid decarboxylase(C) it inhibits MAO type A(D) it inhibits MAO type B80. Select the specific unwanted effect of L-DOPA(A) Dementia(B) Hypertension(C) Dyskinesia(D) ExcitotoxicityData for questions 81 and 82:The decomposition of a drug in aqueous acid solution was found to follow first order reaction.The initial concentration was found to be 0.056 M. The concentration after a period of 12hours was 4.10 x 10-2 moles/litre. The reaction rate constant is 0.02599 - h r1. 63. (A)P-2Q-4R-1S-3 (B)P-4Q-1R-3S-2 (C)P-3Q-2R-45-1 (D)P-3Q-1R-25-4 Group I Terms Group II Explanation (P) Saturated (1) Pounds of water vapour carried by one pound of dry air under any given air set of conditions (Q) Dew point (2) The water vapour is in equilibrium with liquid water at the given conditions of temperature and pressure (R) Humid (3) The volume in cubic feet occupied by one pound dry of air and its volume accompanying water vapour (S) Humidity (4) Temperature to which a mixture of air and water vapour must be cooled in order to become saturated. 64. (A) P – 1 Q – 2 R – 4 S – 3 (B) P – 3 Q – 1 R – 2 S – 4 Group I Antibiotic Group II Test organism for microbiological assay IP (P) Bleomycin (1) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (Q) Nystatin (2) Mycobacterium smegmatis (R) Carbenicillin (3) Bacillus subtilis (S) Streptomycin (4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae Data for Q.66 — 80 are based on the statement/problem. Choose the correct answer for each question from among the options A, B, C and D. Common data for questions 66 and 67: A sample of Cinnamomum zeylanicum purchased from the market was evaluated for its authenticity. 66. It shows (A) presence of cork and cortex (B) absence of cork and cortex (C) absence of phloem fibres (D) presence of xylem parenchyma 67. Volatile oil should not be less than (A) 0.05°h (B) 0.20°h (C) 0.50°h (D) 1.00°h Common data for questions 68, 69 and 70: Chloroacetic acid and hydrazine are treated together with X to get semicarbazido acetic acid in which ring closure takes place to 1-amino hydantoin. It is subsequently treated with 2- diacetoxy methyl-5-nitrofuran to get Nitrofurantoin. 68. Reagetn ‘X’ is (A) Cuprous chlodride (B) Potassium cyanate (C) Silver nitrate (D) Mercurous chloride 69. Its IUPAC name is (A) 1-(5-nitrofurfuryl) hydantoin (B) 1-(5-nitrofurfurylidene hydroxyl)hydantoin (C) 1-(5-nitrofurfurylidine amino) hydantoin (D) 1-(5-aminfurfurylidine nitro) dydantoin 70. Its gastrointestinal tolerance can be improved without interfering with oral absorption by preparing a (A) solid dispersion (B) prodrug (C) large crystalline form (Macrodantin) (D) suspension Common data for questions 71 and 72: A compound ‘X’ with molecular formula C2H4O exhibits a strong absorption band at 1730 cm1 in IR spectrum. On reduction, it is converted into ‘Y’ which shows a strong band at 3640cm* 71. Assign the band in X to (A) CH3 (B) C = C (C) C = 0 (D)CH2C=O 72. The strong band in Y is due to (A) -C-C (B) -C-O-C- (C) =CH2 (D)-OH Common data for questions 73, 74 and 75: In the management of asthma, the drugs used are Salmeterol, Zafirlukast, Budesonide, Nedocromil sodium and Bambuterol. 73. Zafirlukast acts as (A) 2 adrenoceptor agonist (B) Cysteinyl-leukotriene receptor antagnoist (C) uscarinic receptor antagonist (D) Antihistamine 74. A prodrug of terbutaline is (A) Zafirlukast (B) Salmeterol (C) Bambuterol (D) Nedocromil sodium 75. Warfarin interacts with this antiasthmatic drug and increases prothrombin time (A) Budesonide (B) Zafirlukast (C) Salmeterol (D)Bambuterol Common data for questions 76, 77 and 78: In a pharmaceutical industry, batch filtration of liquids where the proportion of solids to liquids is high is to be carried out. The complete recovery of solids is required. After filtration, the filtrate, which is corrosive, gives a crystalline product on evaporation. The liquid tends to deposit scales or crystals on the heating surface during evaporation. 76. A suitable filtration equipment is (A) Plate and frame filter press (B) Leaf filters (C) Meta filters (D) Membrane filters 77. The filter aid used in the above filtration is (A) Sand (B) Nylon fibre cloth (C) Activated carbon (D) Filter paper 78. A suitable evaporator is (A) falling film evaporator (B) forced circulation evaporator (C) vertical evaporator (D) horizontal tube evaporator Common data for questions 79 and 80: Isoprenoid biosynthesis is involved in the production of many biologically important compounds such as Cholesterol, Steriod Hormones, Vitamin K, Vitamin E and bile acids. 79. HMG-Co A reductase, a key enzyme in the patway, catalyzes (A) side chain cleavage in the conversion of cholesterol to steroid hormones (B) the reduction of the thio-ester group to an alcohol in mevalonate biosyntheis. (C) the reduction of the hydroxyl group of mevalonate to Vitamin D. (D) steroid condensation reaction in the biosynthesis of bile acids. 80. The inhibition of HMG-C0A teductase is a strategy used in the treatment of (A) Familia hyperchlesterolemia (B) Vitamin K deficiency (C) Inflammation in the joints (D) Hepatic parenchymal disease Linked Answer Questions: Q.81a to Q85b Carry Two Marks Each. Statement for Linked Answer Questions 81a to 81b: 81. (A) The selective COX-2 inhibitor is (A) Ketorolac (B) Rofecoxib (C) Indomethacin (D)Naproxen (B) The drug selected is not to be given, if the patient is already taking (A) Antiallergic drugs (B) Anxiolytic drugs (C) Antihypertensive drugs (D) Oral antidiabetic agents Statement for Linked Answer Questions 82a to 82b: A drug solution has an initial potency of 300 mg/lOml. When stored in a refrigerator for 30 days, its potency was found to be 100 mg/10m1. 82. (A) The rate constant, assuming that the drug solution undergoes first order kinetics, is: (A) 0.0366 day1 (B) 0.0074 day1 (C) 0.0174 day1 (D)0.0506 day1 (B) Half-life of the drug solution, under these conditions is: (A) 9.4 days (B) 19 days (C) 47 days (D)4.7 days Statement for Linked Answer Questions 83a to 83b: Ginger is a widely used herbal drug, containing many chemical constituents. 83. (A) The pungent principle present in it, is (A) Zingiberol (B) Zingiberene (C) Gingerol (D)Cineole (B) It’s decomposition product, on boiling with 2°h KOH is (A) Zingiberone (B) Shogaol (C) Gingediol (D) Gingediol acetate Statement for Linked Answer Questions 84a to 84b: 2, 6-dimethyl phenol and chloroacetone on reaction gives ‘X’, which on treatment with hydroxylamine and hydrochloric acid gives an intermediate product. This on further treatment with Raney nickel in acid, gives the final product. 84. (A) The product ‘X’ is: (A) 1-(2, 6-Dimethyl phenoxy)-2-propanone (B) 1-(2, 6-Dimethyl phenoxy)-2-butanone (C) 1-(2, 6-Dimethyl phenoxy)-2-isopropanone (D) 1-(2, 6-Dimethyl phenoxy)-2-pentanone (B) The final product is (A) 1-methyl-2-(2, 6-xylyloxy)isopropylamine (B) 1-methyl-2-(2, 6-xylyloxy)ethylamine (C) 1-methyl-2-(2, 6-xylyloxy)butylamien (D) 1-methyl-2-(2, 6-xylyloxy)pentylamine Statement for Linked Answer Questions 85a to 85b: An organic compound ‘X’ has an absorption maxima at 217 nm. Its Emax is 16,000. the absorbance is 0.64 when the cell length is 1 cm. 85. (A) The molar concentration of ‘X’ is (A) 5x105 (B) 4x105 (C) 4x104 (D)5x102 (B) If the molecular weight is 56.06, its concentration in gms/ml is: (A) 2.5x10 6 (B) 0.25x10 6 (C) 5x10 (D) 2.24x10 6 1. The structural feature common fro propranolol, atenolol, pindolol, metopropol in the side chain is (A) Isopropylamino propan-2-ol (B) Dimethylamino propan-2-ol (C) Diethylamino propan-2-ol (D) Dibutylamino propan-2-ol 2. When N-methyl group of morphine is replaced with an allyl group, the compound formed is (A) Naloxone-morphine antagonist (B) Natrexone-morphine agonist (C) Nalorphine-morphine antagonist (D) Nalbuphine-morphine agonist/antagonist 3. Nitrazepam can be synthesized from (A) 2-Bromo-5-amino benzophenone (B) 2-Nitro-2-chloro acetophenone (C) 2-Amino-5-nitro cyclohexanone (D) 2-Amino-5-nitro benzophenone 4. Clavulanic acid has a beta lactam king fused to (A) Thienyl system (B) Thiadiazole system (C) Thiazolidine system (D) Oxazolidine system 5. A drug which has antipyretic, anti-inflammatroy and antiplatelet activity is (A) Sulfinpyrazone (B) Aspirin (C) Ticlopidine (D) Acetaminophen 6. Wild cherry bark contains prunasin which is a (A) Phenolic glycoside (B) Isothiocyanate glycoside (C) Coumarin glycoside (D) Cyanogenetic glycoside 7. Ephedra sinica and Ephedra equisetina can be distinguished by type of (A) Branching (B) Stomata (C) Scaly leaves (D)Alkaloids 8. Microprapagation of the plants is carried out through (A) Cross fertilization (B) Seed germination (C) Plant tissue culture (D) Grafting 9. Acontitine belongs to the group of (A) Steroidal alkaloids (B) Terpenoidal alkaloids (C) Indole alkaloids (D) Quinoline alkaloids 10. Crude fiber value of a drug is a measure of (A) Soft tissue matter (B) Woody matter (C) Mineral matter (D) Organic matter 11. One of the units used for expressing pressure is ‘torr’ and it is equal to (A) cm of Hg (B) mm of Hg (C) psi (D)gauss 12. Removal of a single electron from a molecule results in the formation of (A) Fragment ion (B) Metastable ion (C) Molecular ion (D) Rearrangement ion 13. Nuclear magnetic moment is NOT shown by (A) 13C (B) 16Q (C) 1H (D) 15N 14. Derivatisation techniques in HPLC are intended to enhance (A) Molecular weight (B) Detectability (C) Reversibility (D) Reproducibility 15. A conductance cell is calibrated by using a solution of known conductivity, i.e., usually a solution of (A) NaCI (B) Hg2CI2 (C) KCI (D) Na2SO4 16. Metoclopramide is generally used for (A) Prophylaxis of vomiting (B) Preventing motion sickness (C) Treating irritable bowel syndrome (D) Treatment of pancreatic insufficiency 18. Identify the non-pathogenic organism (A) Mycobacterium bovis (B) Mycobacterium smegmatis (C) Mycobacterium avium (D) Mycobacterium intracellulare 19. Bioassays are carried out to (A) Measure the pharmacological activity of a drug (B) Avoid clinical trails for new drugs (C) Detect the impurity in a given drug (D) Screen fro pharmacognetic influences of new drugs. 20. A direct way of studying idiosyncratic reactions to a given drug is by (A) changing the route of drug administration (B) changing the assay method (C) pharmacogenomics (D) structure activity relationship studies of a family of compounds 21. An example of haemopoietic growth factor is (A) platelet derived growth factor (B) epidermal growth factor (C) iron dextran (D) erythropoietin 22. Safranin is used as a reagent to detect (A) Gram-negative bacteria (B) Gram-positive bacteria (C) Acid fast bacteria (D) Myxozoa 23. Sulphonamides do not have adverse drug interaction with (A) Oral anticoagulants (B) Sulfonylurea hypoglycemic agents (C) Hydantoin anticonvulsants (D) Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitors 24. Simvastatin belongs to (A) HMG CoA reductase inhibitor type of antilipidemic agents (B) HMG CoA reductase inhibitor type of anticoagulant agents (C) Fibrate type of anticoagulant agents (D) Fibrate type of antilipidemic agents 25. HIV infection can be clinically controlled with (A) Cytarabine (B) Acyclovir (C) Zidovudine (D)Amantadine 26. The measure of cohesive strength of the cross linking that occurs between gelatin molecules and is proportional to the molecular weight of gelatin is called (A) Bloom strength (B) Viscosity (C) Surface tension (D) Partition coefficient 27. A water soluble substance used as coating material in microencapsulation process is: (A) Polyethylene (B) Silicone (C) Hydroxy ethyl cellulose (D) Paraffin 28. One of the following is used as a solubilizing agent to solubilize testosterone in pharmaceutical liquid dosage forms. (A) Sucrose monoesters (B) Lanolin esters (C) Lanolin ethers (D) Tweens 29. One of the following is used as a pH dependent controlled release excipient. (A) Carnauba wax (B) Hydroxy proply methyl cellulose phthalate (C) Methyl cellulose (D) Glyceryl monostearate 30. The Schedule in D & C act that deals with the standards for disinfectant fluids is: (A) Schedule B (B) Schedule F (C) Schedule 0 (D)Schedule M Q.31 — 80 Carry Two Marks Each. 31. The carboxyl group of aspirin is esterified with N-acetyl-p-aminophenol to get (A) 3-Acetamidophenly-O-acetyl salicylate (B) 4-Acetamidophenly-O-acetyl salicylate (C) O-(2-hydroxy benzoyl) salicylic acid (D) 2-acetamidophenyl-O-acetyl salicylate 32. JUPAC system of nomenclature for diclophenac sodium (BP) is (A) Sodium 2-[(2, 6-Dichlorophenyl) amino] phenyl acetate (B) Sodium 3-[(2, 6-Dichlorophenyl) amino] phenyl acetate (C) Sodium 2-[(2-Chlorophenyl) amino] phenyl acetate (D) Sodium 2-[(6-Chlorophenyl) amino] phenyl acetate 33. 1-(2-Aminoethyl) perdydroazocine on treatment with S-methyl isothiourea gives rise to an adrenergic neuron blocking agent (A) Bethanidine (B) Mecamylamine (C) Guanadrel (D)Gauenthidine 34. Quercetin is (A) 5, 7, 3-Trihydroxy flavone (B) 5, 7, 3, 4-Tetradydroxy flavone (C) 3, 5, 7, 3, 4-Pentahydroxy flavonol (D) 3, 5, 7, 3, 4-Pentahydroxy flavonone 35. Meconic acid is a chemical marker for the genus (A) Piper (B) Pilocarpus (C) Prunus (D)Papaver 36. A novel diterpenoid isolated from the bark of Taxus brevifolia is (A) Demecolcine (B) Paclitaxel (C) Vinblastin (D)Brevifolicin 37. The absorption maximum for polar compounds is usually shifted with change in polarity of the solvents due to (A) Hydrogen bonding (B) Chemical reaction (C) Ionization of the compounds (D) Change in the chromophone 38. A titration in which potential applied across two electrodes is maintained at a constant value and the current is measured and plotted against volume of titrant is (A) Potentiometric titration (B) Amperometric titration (C) Displacement titration (D) Conductometric titration 39. The parameter in the elution curve that is proportional to the concentration of a compound in gas chromatographic effluent is the (A) Number of peaks (B) Width of the peak (C) Area under the peak (D) Shape of the peak 40. A drug solution has a half life of 21 days. Assuming that the drug undergoes first order kinetics, how long will it take for the potency to drop to 9O/c of the initial potency? (A) 3.2 days (B) 9.6 days (C) 16 days (D)6.4 days 41. An amphoteric surfactant used in pharmaceutical disperse system is: (A) Bile salts (B) Lecithin (C) Sorbitan monolaurate (D) Sorbitan monostearate 42. An abrasive used in dentifrices is (A) Dicalcium phosphate (B) Sodium carboxy methyl cellulose (C) Sodium lauryl sulfate (D) Dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate 43. An electrochemical method that enhances the transport of some solute molecules by creating a potential gradient through the skin tissue with an applied electrical current or voltage is called (A) Electrophoresis (B) lontophoresis (C) Osmosis (D)Implants 44. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has been taking acetyl salicylic acid regularly. However, recently she has been experiencing stiffness, swelling and pain due to salicylate resistance. She has occult blood in her faeces. Suggest an appropriate drug suitable for her from those mentioned below: (A) Paracetamol (B) Celecoxib (C) Piroxicam (D)Naproxen 45. The break down of fibrin is catalyzed by (A) Plasmin (B) Renin (C) Urokinase (D)Ptylin 46. Which one of the these best describes a process carried out to render a drug pharmacokinetically more acceptable? (A) Enteric coating if diclofenac. (B) Co-administration of aspirin with antacids. (C) Use of colloidal suspensions or liposomes for administering amphotericin-B. (D) Synthesis of an analogue to obtain high receptor specificity. 47. Azithromycin is clinically administered once daily as compared to erythromycin which is administered every 6 hours because, azithromycin (A) Penetrates into most tissues and is released very slowly. (B) Has a methylated nitrogen in its lactone ring which renders it much more potent than erythromycin. (C) Is a very potent antibiotic but not tolerated well in the gastrointestinal tract. (D) Is usually presented in a sustained release dosage form. 48. A patient showing muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, tremors and postural instability was administered levo-dopa. Which of the properties of levo-dopa is not true? (A) Levo-dopa is preferred over dopamine because it can cross the blood brain barrier. (B) Levo-dopa is the levorotatory stereoisomer of 3, 4-dihydroxy phenylalanine. (C) Levo-dopa gets decarboxylated in the brain to dopamine. (D) Levo-dopa is administered because of its strong antagonistic action on dopamine receptors. 49. Autoimmunity refers to (A) an automatic trigger of the immune system directed against a specific pathogen. (B) failure to distinguish between self and non-self (C) an automatic segregation of T and B cells. (D) failure of B-cells to interact with T-cells. 50. Which of these is true about the discovery of HB antigen in the blood of people infected with Hepatitis-B? (A) It provided a basis for vaccine design. (B) It indicated that specific vaccines cannot be designed for Hepatitis-B. (C) It has not been of much significance. (D) It indicated that Hepatitis-B is a viral disease 51. Which drug molecule DOES NOT have phenylethyl amine moiety? (A) Amphetamine (B) Glyburide (C) Pheniramine (D)Mescaline Q.52-58 are multiple selection items. P, Q, R, S are the options. Two of these options are correct. Choose the correèt combination among A, B, C and D. 52. There are two methods by which the duration of action of insulin may be prolonged. (P) Binding with resins. (Q) Esterification of amio acid residues. (R) Forming of complex of insulin with protein. (5) Modification of particle size. (A) Q, R (B) R, S (C) P.S (D)P, R 53. The attributes of cycloserine are (P) No tautomerism shown. (Q) Exists in equilibrium with its tautomeric enolic form. (R) Stable in alkaline solution, destroyed rapidly at neutral or acidic pH. (S) Stable in neutral solution, destroyed in alkaline pH. (A) R, S (B) P, Q (C) Q, R (D)P, R 54. Compared to benzyl penicillin, amoxicillin has the following advantages in biological properties. (P) The amino group renders the antibiotic resistant to acid catalysed degradation. (Q) The spectrum of acidity is broadened. (R) The amino group of renders penicillinase resistance to the compound. (S) The phenolic group renders penicillinase resistance to the compound. (A) P, Q (B) P, R (C) P. S (D)Q, R 55. The identification of propellants in pharamaceutical aerosols is carried out by (P) Gas-chromatography (Q) Tag-open cup apparatus (R) Pyknometer (S) JR Spectrophotometer (A) P, Q (B) P, S (C) Q, R (D)R, S 56. Schedule ‘H’ and Schedule ‘5’ as per the Drugs and Cosmetics Act deal with the following. (P) Prescription drugs which are required to be sold by retail only on prescription of R.M.P. (Q) Standards for cosmetics (R) Biological and special products (5) List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmetics and soaps (A) P, Q (B) P, R (C) Q, S (D)R, S 57. Myristica fragrans Houtt has two of the following characteristics. (P) An indeciduous tree, which produces drupaceous, pale yellow fruits. (Q) Each fruit has several round seeds with smooth surface and lignaceous tegument, and the orange red fleshy aril — the mace, is present inside the seed. (R) A deciduous tall tree, which produces lignaceous capsules. (S) Each fruit has a unique avoid seed, with lignified tegument, surrounded by orange red laciniate fleshly aril — the mace. (A) Q, R (B) P, R (C) P.S (D)Q, S 58. Jn size exclusion chromatography the stationary phases used are: (P) Alumina (Q) Dextran (R) Agarose (S)Styrene (A) P, S (B) Q, R (C) Q, S (D)P, R Q.59-65 ARE “MATCHING” exercises. Match Group I with Group II. Choose the correct Group II Group I Intermediates from which Group I drugs are Synthetic Drugs synthesized (P) Buclizin (1) Aziridin and thiophosphoryl chloride (Q) C h 10 ro ph en es (2) 4-Chlorophenol in (R) Thiotepa (3) 4-Chlorobenzhydryl chloride (S) Alprazolam (4) 2-Amino-5-Chloro benzophenone Codes: (A) P - 3 Q - 2 R - 1 S-4 (B) P - 4 Q - 2 R - 1 S - 3 (C) P - 2 Q - 4 R - 3 S-1 (D) P - 1 Q - 2 R - 4 S - 3 60 Group I Group II Cardiac Agents Mechanism of action (P) Digitoxin (1) Produces negative inotropic effect by blocking calcium channels (Q) (2) Depresses adrenergically enhanced calcium influx Dobutamine through beta receptor blockade (R) Sotalol (3) Causes elevation of cAMP levels by stimulation of adenylate cyclase. (4) Inhibits membrane bound sodium potassium ATPase (S) Nicardipine pump. Codes: (A)P-4Q-3R-2S-1 (B)P-3Q-4R-1S-2 (C)P-4Q-2R-3S-1 (D)P-4Q-3R-1S-2 61. Group I Group II Technique employed Source of Radiation (P) Visible spectrophotometry (1) Rf Source transmitter (Q) JR spectrophotometry (2) Xenon lamp (R) NMR spectrophotometry (3) Tungsten lamp (S) Fluorescence (4) Nernst glower spectrophotometry Codes: (A) P - 2 Q - 4 R-3 S-1 (B) P - 3 Q - 2 R - 1 S - 4 (C) P - 3 Q - 4 R- 1 S-2 (D) P - 4 Q - 1 R - 3 S - 2 1. In a comparative chemical study of Morphine, Codeine and Thebaine, the following observations are noted. Give your inferences (a) Morphine forms dibenzoate, Codeine forms a monobenzoate (b) Morphine gives a positive ferric chloride test and others do not (c) Codeine gives one molecule of CH3I when heated with HI where as thebaine gives two molecules CH3I (d) Morphine on treatment with halogenoacid gives a monohalogen derivative (e) All the three alkaloids combine with CH3I to form methiiodide 5. With respect to Ceylon Cinnamon, give (a) Botanical source with family (b) Main active constituent with its chemical nature (c) Chemical structure of the main active constituent 6. Assign the bands in the JR spectrum for appropriate groups given below: >C=O, aromatic compounds, -OH, >C=C<, -CC (a 3700 — 3500 cm1 (b) 1740 — 1720 cm1 (c) 1667 — 1640 cm1 (d) 2260 — 2100 cm1 (e) 900 — 675 cm1 7. In the microbiological assay of ERYTHROMYCJN, I.P. (a) Name the organism used (b) Name the solvent used (c) What is the buffer used? (d) In what pH is the experiment done? (e) What is the incubation temperature? 8. (a) 0.25 g of a compound C10H15N0.HCIwas titrated with 0.1 M HCIO4. It consumed 12.5 ml of the titrant. (i) What is the stoichiometric factor used for the calculation of percentage purity? (ii) Calculate the percentage purity (b) Write the formula used and calculate the absorbance of a solution of a compound having and Emax 6200, when 0.05 mM solution is measured in a 1 cm cell. 9. (a) Complete the following reactions giving appropriate structures. 0-toluidine is treated with 2-Bromo propionyl bromide, the resulting product is treated with propylamien to get the drug. (b) To which therapeutic category does the drug belong? 10. 2-amino-4, 5-dimethoxy benzoic acid NaOCN ) A PCI3 /PCI5 B NH3 C 1 (2 Furoyl piperazine) ) D (a) Write the products at A, B, C, D. (b) To which therapeutic category does the drug D belong? 11. 2H — 1,2,4 — Benzothiadiazine — 7 — sulfonamide — 6 — chloro-1, 1-dioxide, can be modified to change biological properties. Comment on the effect of the following modifications to the structure. (a) Saturation of -3-4-double bond (b) Substitution of 6-chloro by —CF3 (c) Insertion of a benzyl group at position 5 (d) Insertion of a methyl group at position 2 (e) Saturation of 3, 4-double bond, insertion of a benzyl group at position 3, and substitution of 6-Cl by —CF3 12. Draw the structures of the following (a) Dimethyl-[3-phenyl-3-(2-pyridyl)-propyl]-amine (b) 4-amino-N-(2-diethyl-aminoethyl) benzamide (c) N1-(5-methyl iso oxazol-3-yl)-u1Ifanilamide (d) 2-(2-fluoro biphenyl-4-yl) propionic acid (e) (E)-2-(3-pyrrolidin-l-yl-l-(4-tolyl)prop-l-enyl)pyridine 13. Draw the structures of the major first phase metabolic products of the following drugs by the given route. (a) Phenobaritone-by aromatic hydroxylation (b) Procaine — by hydrolysis (c) Imipramine — by N-mono dealkylation (d) Nor-epinephrine- by oxidative deamination (e) 6-merceptopurine — by oxidation 14. Name the enzymes that catalyze the following reactions (a) Acetoacetyl CoA - Acetyl CoA (b) Oxaloacetate - Malate (c) Riboflavin - Flavin mononucleotide (d) HMG — CoA - Mevalonate (e) Glutamate - GABA 15. For the following drugs name the type of interaction and the molecule involved in exerting their pharmacological response (a) Captopril (b) Diltiazem (c) Diazepam (d) Rifampicin (e) Haloperidol 16. Name five components of an aerosol package 17. A drug solution has an initial potency of 125 mg I 5 ml. After storing for 30 days in a refrigerator, the potency is found to be 100 mg I 5 ml. what is the half life of the drug solution under these conditions? The drug undergoes first order kinetics. Give the equations and steps involved. 18. Name the five forces that can act between solid particles in Tablet manufacture. 19. (a) Give four reasons for pH adjustment in parenteral preparations (b) In which year was the Pharmacy Council of India first constituted by the Central Government? 20. In five different patients, deficiency of vitamins were diagnosed. The diagnosis were (a) Scurvy (b) Wet or dry Beriberi (c) Inflamed tongue, glossitis (d) Pernicious anemia (e) Osteomalacia in adults 21. (a) Define Schick Test Toxin, IP. (b) What is it’s dose? (c) What is its’s pH? (d) Give it’s storage conditions (e) Define Schick control 22. The antibiotics VANCOMYCIN, CEFALEXIN, FUSIDIC ACID, ERYTHROMYCIN and BICYCLOMYCIN belong to one of the following classes. Include them in the appropriate class Cyclic dipeptide, 3-lactam, Macrolide, Tetracyclic triterpene, Glycopeptide. 1. This question consists of TWENTY-FIVE sub-questions (1.1 — 1.25) of ONE marks each. For each of these sub-questions, four possible alternatives (A, B, C and D) are given, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Indicate the correct answer by darkening the appropriate bubble against the question number on the left hand side of the Objective Response Sheet (ORS). You may use the answer book provided for any rough work, if needed. 1.1 Starting material used for the synthesis of L-Thyroxine is: (a) 2 amino-5-chloro acetophenone (b) phenyl alanine (c) 2 amino-5-chloro benzophenone (d) L-tyrosine 1.2 One of the following antianxiety agent is an azaspirodecanedione derivative. (a) Lorazepam (b) Cycloheptadiene (c) Meprobamate (d) Buspirone 1.3 Include the following drug under proper classification. NIFEDIPINE. (a) Quinoline derivative (b) Aryl piperidines (c) Iso Quinoline derivative (d) Pyridine derivative 1.4 Acetazolamide can be synthesized from one of the following intermediates. (a) 5 amino-2-mercapto-1, 3-thiazole (b) 5 amino-2-mercapto-1, 3, 4-thiadiazole (c) 5 amino-2-mercapto-1, 2, 3-thiadazole (d) 5 amino-2-mercapto-1, 3, 4-tetrazole 1.5 Choose the correct trichomes of Digitalis purpurea. (a) Numerous covering trichomes and a few glandular trichomes (b) Few covering trichomes (c) Few glandular trichomes and few covering trichomes (d) Few glandular trichomes 1.6 PANAXADIOL is a constituent of (a) Ginger (b) Jatamanst (c) Ginseng (d) Pepper 1.7 The plant harmone which shows specific effect on the cell division is: (a) Auxins (b) Abscisic Acid (c) Cytokin ins (d) Ethylene 1.8 One of the following condition is maintained in programmed temperature gas chromatography. (a) Temperature of the whole column is raised during analysis (b) Temperature at the sample injection system is raised (c) Temperature at the detector is gradually raised (d) Temperature at the recorder alone is raised 1.9 A BOLOMETER consists of (a) two metals welded together (b) a thin blackened platinum strip in an evacuated vessel (c) deuterated triglycine sulphate (d) tungsten wire 1.10 Choose the correct excipient for enhancing solubility in Tablet manufacture. (a) PEG (b) Microcrystalline cellulose (c) Talc (d) Lactose 1.11 Two or more ions present together can be determined successfully by polarograph even if their half wave potentials overlap or interfere by (a) titration (b) complexation (c) filtration (d) heating 1.12 One of the following is a selective. SEROTONIN reuptake inhibitor (a) Desipramine (b) Fluoxetine (c) Buspropion (d) Maprotiline 1.13 PLasmodial resistance of CHLOROQUINE is due to (a) induction of inactivating enzymes (b) change in receptor structure (c) increase in the activity of DNA repair mechanism (d) decreased carrier mediated drug transport 1.14 One of the following actions of opioid analgesics is medicated via kappa receptors (a) Cerebral vascular dilation (b) Euphoria (c) Spinal analgesia (d) Physical dependence 1.15 One of the following drugs has activity against Herpes simplex virus type I and is used topically Systematic administration of the same results in bone marrow depression hepatic dysfunction and nephrotoxicity. (a) Acyclovir (b) Amantadine (c) Vadarabine (d) Idoxuridine 1.16 A woman has to be treated for upper respiratory tract infection. Six years back she was found hypersensitive to Penicillin V. The cultures now reveal a strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae that is sensitive to all of the following drugs. Which one would be the best choice for the patient? (a) Amoxicillin (b) Erythromycin (c) Cefaclor (d) Cyclacillin 1.17 The units of measurement for conductance is: (a) Ohms (b) Amperes (c) Mhos (d) Milli volts 1.18 The shells of soft gelatin capsules may be made elastic or plastic like, by the addition of (a) Sorbitol (b) Povidone (c) PEG (d) HPMC 1.19. The rate of drug bioavailability is most rapid when the drug is formulated as a (a) controlled released product (b) hard gelatin capsule (c) tablet (d) solution 1.20. The loading dose of a drug is usually based on (a) total body clearance of the drug (b) percentage of drug bound to plasma proteins (c) fraction of drug excreted unchanged in urine (d) apparent volume of distribution and desired drug concentration in plasma 1.21. BROWNE’s tubes are the mot commonly used chemical indicator for (a) Ethylene oxide sterilization (b) Radiation sterilization (c) Heat process sterilization (d) Filtration sterilization 1.22. A specimen obtained from a patient’s cerebrospinal fluid, cultured in specialized media for about five weeks showed the presence of bent rods and tested positive with Ziehi-Neelsen reagent. Identify the organism. (a) Niesseria meningitidis (b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (c) Bacteroides fragilis (d) Leptospira interrogans 1.23. Staphylococcus aureus is used for the I.P. assay of (a) Doxycycline (b) Bleomycin (c) Kanamycin (d) Carbenicillin 1.24. State Pharmacy Council should have the following number of elected members (a) Six (b) Nine (c) Five (d) Seven 1.25 Drug combination WARFARIN/VITAMIN-K results in a specific interaction. Identify. (a) Antagonistic (b) Increased sedation (c) No known interaction (d) Harmful only in the presence of oxidizing agent 2. This question consists of TWENTY-FIVE sub-questions (2.1 — 2.25) of TWO marks each. For each of these sub-questions, four possible alternatives (A,B, C and D) are given, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Indicate the correct answer by darkening the appropriate bubble against the question number on the left hand side of the Objective Response Sheet (ORS). You may use the answer book provided for any rough work, if needed. 2.1 In the glucuronidation reaction of OXAZEPAM — the functional group responsible is: (a) —OH (b) —COOH (c) —SH (d)—NH2 2.2. Benzhydryl bromide when treated with 2-dimethyl amino ethanol in presence of K2C03 gives one of the following. (a) 2-diphenyl ethoxy-N, N-dimethyl ethylamine (b) 2-diphenyl methoxy-N, N-diethyl ethylamine (c) 2-diphenyl methoxy-N, N-dimethyl ethylamine (d) 2-diphenyl methoxy-N, N-diethyl methylamine 2.3. DEMECLOCYCLINE differs from CHLORTETRACYCLINE only by (a) absence of—CH3 group on carbon 6 (b) presence of—OH group on carbon 6 CH3 (c) absence of—N/ group on carbon 4 ci-13 (d) absence of OH group on carbon 3 2.4. Choose the IUPAC name for CARBAMAZEPINE. (a) 5 [3-(dimethylamino) ethyl] 10-11 dihydro-5H dibenz [b, f] azepine (b) 5 H dibenz [b, f] azepine-5-carboxamide (c) 5 H dibenz [b, f] azepine-5-acid chloride (d) 5 [3-dimethylamino) propyl] 10-11 dihydro-5H dibenz [b, f] azepine 2.5. RESERPINE is derived from (a) Squalene (b) Homoserine (c) Tryptophan and Tryptamine (d) Asparagine 2.6. An alkaloid from Atropa belladonna having the molecular formula C17H2303N having xD-22° when warmed with ethanolic alkaline solution is converted into (a) (-) Hyoscyamine (b) (±) Hyoscyamine (c) (+) Hyosamine (d) (±) Hyoscine 2.7. Choose the appropriate description for ERGOT. (a) Loosely arranged or in small more or less agglutinated angular masses (b) A pseudoparenchyma formed by the interwoven closely appressed compact septate hyphae. (c) The crystocarps have fallen out leaving corresponding oval perforations in the ramuli. (d) Colourless septate hyphae about one quarter the width of a cotton trichome and they become twisted together. 2.8. Characteristic bands observed in the IR spectra of alcohols result from (a) —OH and C—O stretching (b) —OH stretching (c) C—O stretching only (d) C—H bending only 2.9. Bulking agent used for parenteral preparation is: (a) Sodium metabisulphite (b) Benzyl alcohol (c) Carbolic acid (d) Sorbitol 2.10. Identify the correct Non-flammable propellant. (a) Trichloro monofluromethane (b) Dichloro monofluromethane (c) Dimethyl ether (d) Difluoromethane 2.11. Elastomer used in rubber stopper formulation is: (a) Polybutadene (b) Butyl stearate (c) Titanium dioxide (d) Butylated hydroxyl toluene 2.12. Schedule D as per D and C Act is concerned with (a) list of drugs exempted from the provision of import of drugs (b) diseases or ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure (c) requirements of factory premises (d) list of prescription drugs 2.13. Official method for the analysis of CIPROFLOXACIN is by (a) Potentiometry (b) HPLC (c) Gas chromatography (d) Non-aqueous titration 2.14. The radio frequency radiation is associated with (a) Light consisting of one colour only (b) Nuclear magnetic Resonance (c) Mass Spectrometry (d) E.S.R. 2.15. How many gms of a drug should be used in preparing 500 ml of a 1 : 2500 solution? (a) 0.2 (b) 0.02 (c) 0.4 (d) 1.25 2.16. The pyroelectric detector converts electromagnetic radiation into (a) electrical signal (b) fluorescence (c) electrons (d) visible light 2.17. The mechanism of action of DIGITALIS is (a) decreases intracellular sodium concentration (b) inhibits sodium potassium ATPase (c) activates adenyl cyclase which produces cAMP (d) decreases release of calcium from sarcoplasmic reticulum 2.18. The mechanism of action of DACTINOMYCIN is: (a) Inhibits topoisomerase II (b) Cross links DNA (c) Inhibition function of microtubules (d) Inhibits DNA polymerase 2.19. One of the drugs when co-administered with TERFENADINE may lead to life threatening cardiac dysrhythmia. (a) Lomefloxacin (b) Clofazimine (c) Itraconozole (d) Neomycin 2.20. Adverse effects of one of the drugs include amenorrhea, bone marrow depression, gastrointestinal distress and haemorrhagic distress, identify. (a) Cyclizine (b) Pyroxicam (c) Cyclophosphamide (d) Cimetidine 2.21. Varicella zoster is the causative organism for (a) small pox (b) dermatophytosis (c) herpes (d) infectious monocucleosis 2.22. One of the following is confirmed by DNA diagnosis test. (a) Hyperuricaema (b) Cystic fibrosis (c) Acute pancreatitis (d) Hyper lipidaemia 2.23. The conversion of Fructose-i, 6-biphosphate to Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is catalysed by (a) Phospho-glycerate kinase (b) Enolase (C) Aldolase (d) Triose phosphate isomerase 2.24. MORPHINE undergoes microsomal oxidation by (a) N-dealkylation (b) Aromatic hydroxylation (c) Oxidative deamination (d) 0-dealkylation 2.25. SULFASALAZINE is a prodrug that is activated in the intestine by bacterial enzymes. The enzyme responsible is: (a) Azoreductase (b) Choline esterase (c) Glucuronyl transferase (d) Amylase SECTION - B This section consists of TWENTY questions of FIVE marks each. Attempt ANY FIFTEEN questions. Answers must be given in the answer book provided. Answer for each question must start on a fresh page and must appear at one place only. (Answers to all parts of a question must appear together). 3. (a) Which is the active isomer of dimethyl stilbestrol? (b) Inhibition or decreased enzyme activity can result from different types of interaction namely: (i) Non-covalent interaction between the enzyme and drug. (ii) Covalent interaction between the enzyme and drug. (iii) Mutually exclusive binding of the substtate and inhibitor. (iv) Binding on an allosteric site on the enzyme. 4. Complete the following reactions by giving appropriate structures: (a) 2, 6-dimethyl aniline is treated with chloroacetyl chloride (b) Product at (a) is treated with dimethylamine to get the final product. (c) What is the generic name of the final product? 5. Complete the following by giving appropriate structures at A, B, C, D, E. C H OH C H ONa 16O - 17OC C H ONa H N C NH HSO COOCH CHB HSO HSO Benzyl cyanide COOC2H, 6. Following modifications of the prototypes of HYDROCORTISONE represent attempts to increase glucocorticoid activity while decreasing mineralocorticoid activity: (a) Introduction of double bond at C1 and C2. (b) Fluorination at C9. (c) Introduction of double bond at C1 and C2 with fluorination at C9. (d) Double bond C1 and C2, fluorination at C9 and a hydroxyl at C16. (e) Double bond at C1 and C2, fluorination at C9, a methyl at C16. Give the generic names of the products formed. 7. (a) Name the part of Syzygium aromaticum which is used officially as the drug. (b) Where does the ovary situated in the above drug. (c) Which type of typical stomata is present in the above drug. (d) The G.C. analysis of the volatile oil from the above drug gives two characteristic major peaks. Name the probable constituents. 8. PAPAVERINE an alkaloid of molecular formula C2QH2104N undergoes degradation reactions. Give only the structural formulae of the products formed in the following reactions. (a) With hot concentrated Potassium permanganate (b) With cold dilute Potassium permanganate 9. Following statements are characteristic for particular terms used. Identify and name the terms: (a) In plant breeding it is a possible means of combining in a single variety the desirable characters of two or more lines, variety or species and occasionally of producing new and desirable characters not found in either parent. (b) Changes in the genetic make up of the plant. (c) Chromosomes can be grouped not in pairs, but in threes, fours or higher numbers. (d) Plants occur with one or more chromosomes extra to the somatic number (e) Plant protoplasts which can be maintained in culture and can be induced to fuse either with others of the same or different species. 83. Suggest a suitable dosage form (A) Solution (B) Suspension (C) Emulsion (D)Capsule 84. Suggest a substance to be incorporated into the formulation (A) Glycerine (B) Acacia (C) Cetrimide (D)Alcohol 85. Select one of the appropriate labeling directions (A) Keep in the refrigerator (B) No preservatives added (C) Schedule ‘G’ (D) Shake well before use Data for questions 86 and 87: Successive solvent extraction of a crude drug with petroleum ether, benzene, chloroform, ethyl alcohol and water was performed. Qualitative chemical testing of petroleum ether extract gave positive Keller-Kiliani and Salkowski’s reactions. Ethyl alcohol and aqueous extract gave positive FeCI3 reaction and acqueous extract gave foamy solution 86. What constituents are present in the petroleum ether/benzene extract? (A) Plant sterols (B) Tropane alkaloids (C) Sesquiterpenoids (D) Purines 87. What constituents are present in the ethyl alcohol and aqueous extracts? (A) Plants lipids (B) Anthraquinone glycosides (C) Alkaloids (D) Plant phenols and saponins Data for questions 88 to 90: A business executive while playing tennis complained of chest pain and ws brought to emergency room. He has history of mild hypertension and elevated blood cholesterol. ECG changes confirmed the diagnosis of myocardial infraction. The decision is made to open his occluded artery by using thrombolytic agent and also use aspirin later. 88. The thrombolytic agent used is (A) heparin (B) warfarin (C) anistreplase (D)vit. K 89. Mechanism of action of aspirin is (A) inhibit vitamin K absorption (B) antithrombin activity (C) inhibit metabolism of heparin (D) inhibit platelet aggregation 90. Mechanism of action of antithrombic lagent is (A) conversion of plasminogen to plasmin (B) activation of clotting factors (C) inhibit platelet function (D) agonist of vitamin K 1. This question consists of TWENTY-FIVE sub-questions (1.1 — 1.25) of ONE marks each. For each of these sub-questions, four possible alternatives (A,B, C and D) are given, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Indicate the correct answer by darkening the appropriate bubble against the question number on the left hand side of the Objective Response Sheet (ORS). You may use the answer book provided for any rough work, ifneeded. 1.1 Volatile oil from Lemon peels contains d-limonene which is (a) Phenyl propane derivative (b) Bicyclic monoterpene derivative (c) Monocyclic monoterpene derivative (d) Acyclic sesquiterpene derivative 1.2 In case of Digitalis purpurea, he cardiac activity is maximum with (a) Odoroside-H (b) Digoxin (c) Digitoxin (d) Pupurea glycoside A 1.3 Dragendorif’s reagent does not give a positive test with (a) Emetine (b) Morphine (c) Caffeine (d) Codeine 1.4 The instrument used to measure particle volume is (a) Coulter Counter (b) Microscope (c) Hempel Burette (d) Helium Densitometer 1.5 The purpose of seal coating in sugar coating process for tablets is (a) To prevent moisture penetration into the tablet core (b) To round the edges and build up the tablet weight (c) To impart the desired colour to the tablet (d) To give luster to the tablet 1.6 The phenomenon of increasing the solubility of weak electrolytes and non-polar molecules by the addition of a water miscible solvent in which the drug has good solubility is called (a) Complexation (b) Cosolvency (c) Solubilization (d) Hydrotrophy 1.7 HLB system is used to classify (a) Surfactants (b) Preservatives (c) Antioxidants (d) Sequestering agents 1.8 The statement “Store in a cool place” as per I.P. means (a) Store at room temperature (b) Store between 2° to 8°C (c) Store at any temperature between 8° to 25°C (d) Store at 0°C 1.9 Durability of a tablet to combined effects of shock and abrasion is evaluated by using (a) Hardness tester (b) Disintegration test apparatus (c) Friabilator (d) Screw Gauge 1.10 Ion exchange capacity of a resin is dependent on (a) The total molecular weight of the resin (b) The total number of ion active groups (c) Length of the ion exchange resin (d) Solubility of the ion exchange resin 1.11 In mass spectra, the most intense peak is the (a) Base peak (b) Metastable ion peak (c) Fragment ion peak (d) Rearrangement ion peak 1.12 Chemical shift is expressed in one of the following units (a) cm1 (b) Amperes (c) parts per million (d) mm I ml 1.13 Xenon arc lamp is the source of light in (a) Spectrofluorimeter (b) JR Spectrophotometer (c) Flame photometer (d) Calorimeter 1.14 Which of the following pairs has an interaction beneficial for routine clinical use (a) Pseudoephedrine and Aluminium hydroxide gel (b) Tetracycline and Milk of Magnesia (c) MAO inhibitors and Tyramine (d) Chloramphenicol and Tolubutamide 1.15 Measurement of which of the following two constituents of human plasma is of great value in the differential diagnosis of rheumatoid diseases (a) Rheumatoid factor and immunoglobulin G (b) Rheumatoid factor and C-reactive protein (c) HL-A antigen and C-reactive protein (d) Immunoglobulin and bradykinin 1.16 Which of the following is a valid comparison of live attenuated vaccines versus killed inactivated vaccines (a) Hypersensitivity reactions are uncommon among inactivated vaccines (b) Live attenuated vaccines are more effective in children (c) Live attenuated vaccines are not suitable for pediatric use (d) Replication of the organisms in a live attenuated vaccine increases the stimulation of the immune system thereby requiring a lower dose 1.17 An antineoplastic agent acting by folate antagonism and having a pteridine ring is: (a) Trimethoprim (b) Mercaptopurine (c) Methotrexate (d) Folic Acid 1.18 One of the following drugs has 1, 4-dihydropyridine structure, a tertiary amino group in the side chain and Ca channel antagonist action (a) Nitrodipine (b) Nicardinpine (c) Verapamil (d) Captopril 1.19. JUPAC name for one of the steroidal anti-inflammatory agents is 9c-Fluoro- 1 113, l6cL, l7cL,2 1-tetrahydroxy- 1,4-Pregnadiene-3,20-dione (a) Prednisolone (b) Betamethasone (c) Triamcinolone (d) Dexamethasone 1.20. CLOFAZIMINE belongs to a class of (a) Rhiminophenazines (b) Aryl piperazines (c) Phenothiazines (d) Benzyl piperazines 1.21. One of the drugs is an odd one in terms of its biological action (a) Diethyl Stilbestrol (b) Tamoxifen (c) Ethynyl Estradiol (d) Mestranol 1.22. The key intermediates for the synthesis of TIMOLOL are (a) 3, 4-dichloro-1, 2, 5-thiadiazole and morpholine (b) 3, 4-dichloro-1, 2, 5-thiadiazole and piperazine (c) 3, 4-dibromo-1, 2, 5-thiadiazole and piperazine (d) 3-Chloro-1, 2, 5-thiadiazole and morpholine 1.23. One of the following drugs interrupts the synthesis of thyroid hormones by preventing iodine incorporation into the tyrosyl residue of thyroglobulin (a) Levothyroxine (b) Liothyronine (c) Propyl thiouracil (d) Triiodo thyronine 1.24. Macrolide antibiotics exert their action by (a) Inhibiting transcription (b) Altering the genetic code (c) Terminating protein synthesis prematurely (d) Post-translational modification 1.25 One of the following is a selective 132 stimulant (a) Caffeine (b) Salbutamol (c) Propranolol (d) Betahistine 2. This question consists of TWENTY-FIVE sub-questions (2.1 — 2.25) of TWO marks each. For each of these sub-questions, four possible alternatives (A,B, C and D) are given, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Indicate the correct answer by darkening the appropriate bubble against the question number on the left hand side of the Objective Response Sheet (ORS). You may use the answer book provided for any rough work, if needed. 2.1 Cascoriside A is an example of (a) 0-Glycoside (b) C-Glycoside (c) N- and 5- Glycoside (d) 0- and C- Glycoside 2.2. Precursor for the biosynthesis of Tropane group of alkaloids is (a) Leucine (b) Lysine (c) Ornithine (d) Tyrosine 2.3. The extraction of steroidal saponins on commercial scale is from (a) Dioscorea (b) Digitalis (c) Datura (d) Trigonella 2.4. Rauwolfia serpentine Benth., can be distinguished from other adulterants/substitutes of Rauwolfia spp. by (a) presence of starch grains (b) Presence of calcium oxa late crystals (c) Presence of trichomes (d) Presence of sclereids 2.5. Schedule FF contains the list of the following (a) Drugs which can be marked under generic names only (b) Drugs which are habit forming (c) Standards for ophthalmic preparation (d) Drugs which are exempt from certain provisions applicable to manufacturing 2.6. One of the following equation is used to predict the stability of a drug product at room temperature from experiments at accelerated temperature (a) Stokes equation (b) Arrhenius equation (c) Yong equation (d) Michaelis-Menten equation 2.7. One of the following apparatus is used to determine the particle size by the gravity sedimentation method (a) Pyknometer (b) Ostwald viscometer (c) Andreasen apparatus (d) Friabilator 2.8. One of the following mills works on both the principles of attrition and impact (a) Cutter mill (b) Hammer mill (c) Roller mill (d) Fluid energy mill 2.9. A commonly used antioxidant for oil system is (a) Butylated hydroxyl toluene (b) Ascorbic acid (c) Sodium metabisulfite (d) Thioglycol 2.10. In Digitalis glycoside c7 position of the steroidal ring is substituted by (a) c-13 unsaturated five membered lactone ring (b) c-I3 unsaturated six membered lactone ring (c) c-I3 unsaturated six membered ring (d) c-13 unsaturated five membered lactam ring 2.11. Metoprolol is sometimes preferred to Propranolol because (a) It has both c and 13 adrenergic blockade (b) It has both vasodilatory properties and 13 adrenergic blockade (c) It has a 13i selective antagonist and it does not enter the brain (d) It is a 132 selective antagonist 2.12. The major product formed by the condensation of 2-trifluoro methyl phenothiazine with sodamide and 1-(3-chloropropyl-4-methyl piperazine). (a) Trifluoperidol (b) Trifluoperazine (c) Trifluopromazine (d) Trifluophenothiazine 2.13. One of the following statements is characteristic for natural estrogens (a) Aromatic ring with phenolic group and an estrange nucleus (b) Aromatic ring with an alcoholic group and a pregnane nucleus (c) Reduced ring system belonging to the class estrane (d) Reduced ring system belonging to the class pregnane 2.14. One of the following opioid peptides is released from pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC) (a) Somatostatin (b) Beta-endorphin (c) Leu-enkephalin (d) Dynorphin 2.15. The ultra short-acting barbiturates have brief duration of action due to (a) High degree of binding to plasma proteins (b) Low lipid solubility resulting in a minimal concentration in the brain (c) Metabolism is slow in the liver (d) Rapid rate of redistribution from the brain due to its high liposolubility 2.16. Derivatisation is done in GC (a) To convert a less polar compound to a more polar compound (b) To make the compound non-volatile (c) To convert a polar compound to a less polar compound (d) To liquify a solid 2.17. Qualitative analysis by polarography is based on (a) Electrode potential (b) Half wave potential (c) Migration current (d) Limiting current 2.18. The stationary phase used in gel permeation chromatography is (a) Alumina (b) Charcoal (c) Squalene (d) Styrene divinyl benzyl co-polymer 2.19. A conductivity cell consists of (a) Two platinised-platinum electrodes (b) A platinum-calomel electrode system (c) A platinum-tungsten electrode system (d) A glass-calomel electrode system 2.20. A typical example of exotoxin is (a) Lipid - A (b) Cytokine (c) Tetanospasmin (d) Tuberculin 2.21. A specimen isolated from a patient suffering from septicemia was found to be a strict aerobe. Its culture vial had a characteristic grape like odour and it was susceptible to carbenicillin. Identify the organism. (a) Pseudomonas fluorescens (b) Salmonella typhi (c) Staphylococcus aureus (d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa 2.22. The pKa of lidocaine is 7.9. If the pH of the infected tissue is 8.9, the fraction of the drug in the ionized form will be (a) 1% (b) 10% (c) 90% (d) 99% 2.23. The drug regimen useful in the treatment of both intestinal and extra-intestinal symptoms of amoebiasis orally is (a) Diloxanide and lodoquinol (b) Paramomycin and Mefloquine (c) Metronidazole and Diloxanide (d) Chloroquine alone 2.24. The drug NIFEDIPINE can be synthesized from (a) o-nitro benzaldehyde, methyl acetoacetate and ammonia (b) p-nitro benzaldehyde, methyl acetoacetate and ammonia (c) o-nitro benzaldehyde, ethyl acetoacetate and methylamine (d) p-nitro benzaldehyde, methyl acetoacetate and methylamine 2.25. Methyl malonyl CoA mutase which catalyzes the conversion of propionyl CoA to succinyl CoA utilizes the prosthetic group derived from (a) Cyanocobalamine (b) Pyridoxine (c) Thiamine (d) Nicotinamide 42. Rotation of electrons about the proton generates a secondary magnetic field which may oppose the applied magnetic filed. The portion is then said to be (A) shielded (B) shifted (C) hydrogen bonded (D) deshielded 43. The analyte is used in the form of a solution in flame photometry because it should undergo (A) evaporation (B) condensation (C) nebulisation (D) precipitation 44. The mechanism of antiparasitic action of Mebendazole and thiabendazole involves (A) stimulation of acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions (B) inhibition of dihydropolate red uctase (C) interference with microtubule synthesis and assembly (D) block thiamine transport 45. Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that (A) requires pyridoxine supplementation (B) causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued (C) is ototoxic and nephrotoxic (D) should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential 46. Decreased risk of Atherosclerosis is associated with increase in (A) very low density lipoproteins (B) low density lipoproteins (C) cholesterol (D) high density lipoproteins 47. The mechanism of action of Paclitaxel is (A) bind to DNA through intercalation between specific bases and block the synthesis of new RNA or DNA, cause DNA strand scission (B) mitotic spindle poison through the enhancement of tubulin polymerization (C) competitive partial agonist — inhibitor of estrogen and binds to estrogen receptors (D) S-Phase specific antimetabolite that is converted by deoxykinase to the 5’- mono n u I eot i d 48. Lycopodium spore method can be used to find out percentage purity of crude drugs which contain (A) multi-layered tissues or cells (B) well defined particles which can be counted (C) oil globules (D) characteristic particles of irregular thickness, the length of which can be measured 49. The microscopical character of flower buds of Eugenia caryophyllus is (A) collenchymatous parenchyma containing in its outer part numerous ellipsoidal schizolysigenous oil glands (B) small translucent endosperm containing aleurone grains (C) wide parenchymatous starchy cortex, the endosperm containing volatile oil (D) outer surface consisting of external perisperm, rough, dark brown with reticulate furrows 50. In protein biosynthesis, each amino acid (A) recognizes its own codon by a direct interaction with the m-RNA template (B) is added in its proper place toa growing peptide chain throught he “adaptor” function of t- RNA (C) is first attached to an anticodon specific for the amino acid (D) undergoes fidelity translation which is assured by the presence of traces of DNA on the ribosome 51. Rabies Antiserum I.P. is a (A) a freeze dried preparation containing antitoxic globulin (B) a preparation containing specific globulin or its derivatives obtained by purification of hyperimmune serum or plasma of healthy horses (C) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulin (D) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulins obtained by purification of hyperimmune serum of horses Q.52-58 are multiple selection items. P, Q, R, S are the options. Two of these options are correct. Choose the correct combination among A, B, C and D. 52. Total ash value in case of crude drug signifies (P) organic content of the drug (Q) mineral matter in the drug (R) addition of extraneous matter such as sand, stone etc. (S) woody matters present in the drug (A) R, S (B) Q, R (C) P. Q (D)P, S 53. The compounds listed below contain c, t and i electrons (P) Acetaldehyde (Q) Butadiene (R) Formaldehyde (S) Benzene (A) P, S (B) Q, R (C) P. R (D)Q, S 54. A 60 year old patient presents with glaucoma. Therapy should include (P) topical atropine (Q) topical pilocarpine (R) oral acetazolamide (S) oral pilocarpine (A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S 55. Measurement of particle size in pharmaceutical Aerosols is by (P) Cascade impactor (Q) light scatter decay (R) Karl-Fischer method (5) JR spectrophotometry (A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S 56. The common attributes of ascorbic acid, an antiscrobutic vitamin, are (P) exist in nature in both reduced and oxidized form and in a state of reversible eq u i Ii b ri u m (Q) has a keto-enol system in the molecule (R) has an aldehyde group since it gives positive Schiff’s reaction (5) salt forming properties are due to the presence of free carboxyl group (A) P, R (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, Q 57. Two properties of Radiopharmaceuticals are (P) slow localization in target tissue (Q) very long half-life to provide enough exposure to get imaging information (R) short half-life to minimize radiation exposure yet long enough to get imaging information (5) rapid localization in target tissue and quick clearance from non-target organs (A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S 58. Two correct statements concerning vitamin D are (P) the active molecule 1, 25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol binds to intracellular receptor proteins (Q) cholecalciferol is found in vegetables (R) 1, 25-dihydroxy-D3 is the most potent vitamin D metabolite (S) it is required in the diet of individuals exposed to sunlight (A) P, S (B) P, R (C) R, S (D)Q, S Group I Group II (Tablet Additives) (Examples) (P) Binder (1) Acacia (Q) Insoluble lubricant (2) Light mineral oil (R) Film coating material (3) Hydroxy ethyl cellulose (5) Direct compression diluent (4) Microcrystalline cellulose (A) P-2 Q-3 R- 1 S-4 (B) P-4 Q-1 R-2 S-3 (C) P-4 Q-3 R-2 S-1 (D) P-2 Q-3 R-4 S-1 61. Group I Group II (JR Detectors ) (Composition) (P) Thermocouple (1) Oxides of Mn, CO and Ni (Q) Pyroelectric Detector (2) Bi-Sb (R) Golay cells (3) Xenon (5) Thermistor (4) Triglycine sulphate (A)P-4Q-3R-1S-2 (B)P-3Q-4R-2S-1 (C)P-1Q-2R-3S-4 (D)P-3Q-4R-1S-2 62 Group I Group II (Alkaloid ) (Ring system) (P) Coniine (1) Isoquinoline (Q) Papaverine (2) Pyridine-Piperidine (R) Anabasine (3) Yohimbane (S) Reserpine (4) Piperidine (A) P - 4 Q - 3 R - 2 S - 1 (B) P - 2 Q - 4 R - 3 S - 1 (C) P - 3 Q - 4 R - 1 S - 2 (D) P - 2 Q - 1 R - 1 5 - 3 63. Group I Group II (Immunoglobulins (Actions) [Ig]) (P) IgG (1) Agglutinating and cytolytic (Q) IgA (2) Antiallergic (R) 1gM () .[eutralises toxins (S) IgE (4) Antimicrobial (A) P-4 Q-3 R- 1 S-2 (B) P-1 Q-4 R- 2 S-3 (B) P-4 Q-1 R- 3 S-2 (D) P-3 Q-1 R-4 S-2 64 Group I Group II (Antibiotics) (Microorganism used in I.P. assay) (P) Streptomycin (1) Bacillus cereus (Q) Erythromycin (2) Stahylococcus epidermidis (R) Gentamycin (3) Klebsiella pneumoniae (S) Tetracycline (4) Micrococcus luteus (A)P-3Q-2R-1S-4 (B)P-2Q-3R-45-1 (C)P-2Q-1R-35-4 (D)P-4Q-2R-35-1 Data for Q.66 — 90 are based on the statement/problem. Choose the correct answer for each question from among the options A, B, C and D. Data for questions 66 to 68: Leaves of Digitalis purpurea were subjected to morphological, microscopical and chemical screening. (A) P (C) P Group I (Synthetic Group II estrogtenic_drugs_ (Methods of synthesis) ) (1) 4, 4’ Dimethoxy benzophenone is treated with 4- methoxy benzoyl (P) Ethinyl chloride + Mg, resulting product is treated with PTS followed by Cl2 + estradiol Cd4 (2) Deoxyanisoin is alkylated and product subjected to Grignard (Q) Dienoestrol reaction, the resulting tertiary alcohol is dehydrated and demethylated with alcoholic KOH (R) Chlorotrianisine (3) By Pinacol reduction of p-hydroxy propiophenone and subsequent removal of water (5) Stilboestrol (4) From Estrone by the action of Potassium acetylide Group I Group II (Immunosuppressants (Mechanism of action) ) (P) Azathioprine (1) Destroys proliferating lymphoid cells (Q) Tacrolimus (2) Prodrug transformed to mercaptopurine which on further conversion inhibits purine metabolism (R) Glucocorticoids (3) Inhibits the cytoplasmic phosphatase Calcineurin (5) Cyclophosphamide (4) Interferes with the cell cycle of activated lymphoid cells 66. Morphological character with respect to the leaf is (A) ovate lanceolate with entire margin (B) ovate lanceolate with crenate margin (C) linear lanceolate with serrate margin (D) linear lanceolate with sinuate margin 67. Microscopical character of trichomes is (A) unicellular, warty (B) multicellular, uniseriate with 2-7 cells (C) multicellular, uniseriate with 10-14 cells (D) multicellular, multiseriate with 10-14 cells 68. The drug gives positive (A) Borntrager’s test (B) Murexide test (C) Legal’s test (D) Thaleoquin test Data for questions 69 and 70: In a synthetic procedure 5-chloro-2,1 4-cIiamino sulfomyl aniline is treated with P to obtain 7- amino sulfomyl-6-chloro--ciildro-methyl-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazin-1:1 dioxide. Subsequently it is refluxed with C6H5-CH2-SH + NaOH + DMF to yield Y. 69. Select the reagent P (A) Chloroacetyldehyde (B) Formaldehyde (C) Formic acid (D) Acetaldehyde 70. The final product Y is (A) 3-benzyl methyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide (B) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxide (C) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide (D) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxide Data for questions 70 to 73: Proguanil is synthesized by diazotization of p-chloroaniline and treating with dicynamide to yield p-chlorophenyldicyandiamide which is converted to Proguanil by reaction with an aliphatic amine. Proguanil is metabolized to a triazine derivative which is an active metabolite. 71. What is the reagent used for diazotization? (A) NaNO2 + dilute HCI (B) KNO3 + dilute H2S04 (C) Zn + dilute H2S04 (D) Tin + H2S04 72. Name the aliphatic amine used (A) Dimethylamine (B) Isopropylamine (C) Isobutylamine (D) Diethylamine 73. Name the metabolite (A) Thioguanil (B) Diguanil (C) Cycloguanil (D) p-chlorophenyl biguanide Data for questions 74 to 76: Calculate the 2max for the following compounds. Base value for Benzaldehyde in ethanol is 250 mm. 74. 2max of p-promobenzaldehyde in nm is (A) 265 (B) 255 (C) 275 (D)260 75. 2max of p-hydroxy benzaldehyde in nm is (A) 253 (B) 275 (C) 261 (D)270 76. 2max of o-chlorobenzaldehyde in nm is (A) 275 (B) 265 (C) 255 (D)250 Data for questions 77 and 78: In the assay of Folic acid I.P., a weighed quantity is dissolved in 0.1 M NaOH solution and subsequently treated with Zn and HCI. The resulting product is mixed with ammonium sulphamate, kept for 2 minutes and a reagent is added to get final coloured product whose absorbance is measured 77. Select the product obtained when folic acid is heated with Zn + HCI (A) Benzoic acid (B) p-aminobenzoic acid (C) Glutamic acid (D) Succinic acid 78. Select the reagent used for the development of colour (A) N-1-naphthyl ethylene diamine didydrochloride (B) Ninhydrin reagent (C) p-dimethylamino benzaldehyde (D) Phloroglucinol Data for questions 79 and 80: Parkinsonism is a common neurological movement disorder. Signs include rigidity of skeletal muscles, akinesia, flat facies and tremors at rest. Both L-DOPA and Carbidopa are used. 79. Carbidopa is used because (A) it crosses blood brain barrier (B) it inhibits aromatic L-aminoacid decarboxylase (C) it inhibits MAO type A (D) it inhibits MAO type B 80. Select the specific unwanted effect of L-DOPA (A) Dementia (B) Hypertension (C) Dyskinesia (D) Excitotoxicity Data for questions 81 and 82: The decomposition of a drug in aqueous acid solution was found to follow first order reaction. The initial concentration was found to be 0.056 M. The concentration after a period of 12 hours was 4.10 x 10-2 moles/litre. The reaction rate constant is 0.02599 - h r1. 42. Rotation of electrons about the proton generates a secondary magnetic field which mayoppose the applied magnetic filed. The portion is then said to be(A) shielded(B) shifted(C) hydrogen bonded(D) deshielded43. The analyte is used in the form of a solution in flame photometry because itshould undergo(A) evaporation(B) condensation(C) nebulisation(D) precipitation44. The mechanism of antiparasitic action of Mebendazole and thiabendazole involves(A) stimulation of acetylcholine receptors at neuromuscular junctions(B) inhibition of dihydropolate red uctase(C) interference with microtubule synthesis and assembly(D) block thiamine transport45. Isoniazid is a primary antitubercular agent that(A) requires pyridoxine supplementation(B) causes ocular complications that are reversible if the drug is discontinued(C) is ototoxic and nephrotoxic(D) should never be used due to hepatotoxic potential46. Decreased risk of Atherosclerosis is associated with increase in(A) very low density lipoproteins(B) low density lipoproteins(C) cholesterol(D) high density lipoproteins47. The mechanism of action of Paclitaxel is(A) bind to DNA through intercalation between specific bases and block the synthesis of newRNA or DNA, cause DNA strand scission(B) mitotic spindle poison through the enhancement of tubulin polymerization(C) competitive partial agonist — inhibitor of estrogen and binds to estrogen receptors(D) S-Phase specific antimetabolite that is converted by deoxykinase to the 5’- mono n u I eoti d48. Lycopodium spore method can be used to find out percentage purity of crude drugs whichcontain(A) multi-layered tissues or cells(B) well defined particles which can be counted(C) oil globules(D) characteristic particles of irregular thickness, the length of which can be measured49. The microscopical character of flower buds of Eugenia caryophyllus is(A) collenchymatous parenchyma containing in its outer part numerous ellipsoidalschizolysigenous oil glands(B) small translucent endosperm containing aleurone grains(C) wide parenchymatous starchy cortex, the endosperm containing volatile oil(D) outer surface consisting of external perisperm, rough, dark brown with reticulate furrows50. In protein biosynthesis, each amino acid(A) recognizes its own codon by a direct interaction with the m-RNA template(B) is added in its proper place toa growing peptide chain throught he “adaptor” function of t-RNA(C) is first attached to an anticodon specific for the amino acid(D) undergoes fidelity translation which is assured by the presence of traces of DNA on theribosome51. Rabies Antiserum I.P. is a(A) a freeze dried preparation containing antitoxic globulin(B) a preparation containing specific globulin or its derivatives obtained by purification ofhyperimmune serum or plasma of healthy horses(C) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulin(D) a sterile preparation containing antitoxic globulins obtained by purification ofhyperimmune serum of horsesQ.52-58 are multiple selection items. P, Q, R, S are the options. Two of these options arecorrect. Choose the correct combination among A, B, C and D.52. Total ash value in case of crude drug signifies(P) organic content of the drug(Q) mineral matter in the drug(R) addition of extraneous matter such as sand, stone etc.(S) woody matters present in the drug(A) R, S (B) Q, R (C) P. Q (D)P, S53. The compounds listed below contain c, t and i electrons(P) Acetaldehyde(Q) Butadiene(R) Formaldehyde(S) Benzene(A) P, S (B) Q, R (C) P. R (D)Q, S54. A 60 year old patient presents with glaucoma. Therapy should include(P) topical atropine(Q) topical pilocarpine(R) oral acetazolamide(S) oral pilocarpine(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S55. Measurement of particle size in pharmaceutical Aerosols is by(P) Cascade impactor(Q) light scatter decay(R) Karl-Fischer method(5) JR spectrophotometry(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S56. The common attributes of ascorbic acid, an antiscrobutic vitamin, are(P) exist in nature in both reduced and oxidized form and in a state of reversible eq u i Ii b ri um(Q) has a keto-enol system in the molecule(R) has an aldehyde group since it gives positive Schiff’s reaction(5) salt forming properties are due to the presence of free carboxyl group(A) P, R (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, Q57. Two properties of Radiopharmaceuticals are(P) slow localization in target tissue(Q) very long half-life to provide enough exposure to get imaging information(R) short half-life to minimize radiation exposure yet long enough to get imaging information(5) rapid localization in target tissue and quick clearance from non-target organs(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) R, S (D)P, S58. Two correct statements concerning vitamin D are(P) the active molecule 1, 25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol binds to intracellular receptor proteins(Q) cholecalciferol is found in vegetables(R) 1, 25-dihydroxy-D3 is the most potent vitamin D metabolite(S) it is required in the diet of individuals exposed to sunlight(A) P, S (B) P, R (C) R, S (D)Q, SGroup IGroup II(Tablet Additives)(Examples)(P) Binder (1) Acacia(Q) Insoluble lubricant (2) Light mineral oil(R) Film coating material (3) Hydroxy ethyl cellulose(5) Direct compressiondiluent (4) Microcrystalline cellulose(A) P-2 Q-3 R- 1 S-4(B) P-4 Q-1 R-2 S-3(C) P-4 Q-3 R-2 S-1(D) P-2 Q-3 R-4 S-161.Group IGroup II(JR Detectors )(Composition)(P) Thermocouple (1) Oxides of Mn, CO and Ni(Q) PyroelectricDetector (2) Bi-Sb(R) Golay cells (3) Xenon(5) Thermistor (4) Triglycine sulphate(A)P-4Q-3R-1S-2 (B)P-3Q-4R-2S-1(C)P-1Q-2R-3S-4 (D)P-3Q-4R-1S-262Group IGroup II(Alkaloid )(Ring system)(P) Coniine (1) Isoquinoline(Q)Papaverine (2) Pyridine-Piperidine(R) Anabasine (3) Yohimbane(S) Reserpine (4) Piperidine(A) P - 4 Q - 3 R - 2 S - 1(B) P - 2 Q - 4 R - 3 S - 1(C) P - 3 Q - 4 R - 1 S - 2(D) P - 2 Q - 1 R - 1 5 - 363.Group IGroup II(Immunoglobulins(Actions)[Ig])(P) IgG (1) Agglutinating and cytolytic(Q) IgA (2) Antiallergic(R) 1gM () .[eutralises toxins(S) IgE (4) Antimicrobial(A) P-4 Q-3 R- 1 S-2(B) P-1 Q-4 R- 2 S-3(B) P-4 Q-1 R- 3 S-2(D) P-3 Q-1 R-4 S-264Group IGroup II(Antibiotics)(Microorganism used in I.P. assay)(P) Streptomycin (1) Bacillus cereus(Q)Erythromycin (2) Stahylococcus epidermidis(R) Gentamycin (3) Klebsiella pneumoniae(S) Tetracycline (4) Micrococcus luteus(A)P-3Q-2R-1S-4(B)P-2Q-3R-45-1(C)P-2Q-1R-35-4(D)P-4Q-2R-35-1Data for Q.66 — 90 are based on the statement/problem. Choose the correct answer for eachquestion from among the options A, B, C and D.Data for questions 66 to 68:Leaves of Digitalis purpurea were subjected to morphological, microscopical and chemicalscreening.(A) P(C) PGroup I(SyntheticGroup IIestrogtenic_drugs_(Methods of synthesis))(1) 4, 4’ Dimethoxy benzophenone is treated with 4- methoxy benzoyl(P) Ethinylchloride + Mg, resulting product is treated with PTS followed by Cl2 +estradiolCd4(2) Deoxyanisoin is alkylated and product subjected to Grignard(Q) Dienoestrolreaction, the resulting tertiary alcohol is dehydrated and demethylatedwith alcoholic KOH(R) Chlorotrianisine (3) By Pinacol reduction of p-hydroxy propiophenone and subsequentremoval of water(5) Stilboestrol (4) From Estrone by the action of Potassium acetylideGroup IGroup II(Immunosuppressants(Mechanism of action))(P) Azathioprine (1) Destroys proliferating lymphoid cells(Q) Tacrolimus (2) Prodrug transformed to mercaptopurine which on furtherconversion inhibits purine metabolism(R) Glucocorticoids (3) Inhibits the cytoplasmic phosphatase Calcineurin(5) Cyclophosphamide (4) Interferes with the cell cycle of activated lymphoid cells66. Morphological character with respect to the leaf is(A) ovate lanceolate with entire margin(B) ovate lanceolate with crenate margin(C) linear lanceolate with serrate margin(D) linear lanceolate with sinuate margin67. Microscopical character of trichomes is(A) unicellular, warty(B) multicellular, uniseriate with 2-7 cells(C) multicellular, uniseriate with 10-14 cells(D) multicellular, multiseriate with 10-14 cells68. The drug gives positive(A) Borntrager’s test (B) Murexide test(C) Legal’s test (D) Thaleoquin testData for questions 69 and 70:In a synthetic procedure 5-chloro-2,1 4-cIiamino sulfomyl aniline is treated with P to obtain 7-amino sulfomyl-6-chloro--ciildro-methyl-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazin-1:1 dioxide. Subsequentlyit is refluxed with C6H5-CH2-SH + NaOH + DMF to yield Y.69. Select the reagent P(A) Chloroacetyldehyde (B) Formaldehyde(C) Formic acid (D) Acetaldehyde70. The final product Y is(A) 3-benzyl methyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide(B) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-6-chloro-2H-1, 2, 4-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxide(C) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1- dioxide(D) 3-benzyl thiomethyl-5-chloro-2H-1, 2, 3-benzothiadiazine-7 sulphonamide 1, 1-dioxideData for questions 70 to 73:Proguanil is synthesized by diazotization of p-chloroaniline and treating with dicynamide toyield p-chlorophenyldicyandiamide which is converted to Proguanil by reaction with analiphatic amine. Proguanil is metabolized to a triazine derivative which is an active metabolite.71. What is the reagent used for diazotization?(A) NaNO2 + dilute HCI (B) KNO3 + dilute H2S04(C) Zn + dilute H2S04 (D) Tin + H2S0472. Name the aliphatic amine used(A) Dimethylamine (B) Isopropylamine(C) Isobutylamine (D) Diethylamine73. Name the metabolite(A) Thioguanil (B) Diguanil(C) Cycloguanil (D) p-chlorophenyl biguanideData for questions 74 to 76:Calculate the 2max for the following compounds. Base value for Benzaldehyde in ethanol is250 mm.74. 2max of p-promobenzaldehyde in nm is(A) 265 (B) 255 (C) 275 (D)26075. 2max of p-hydroxy benzaldehyde in nm is(A) 253 (B) 275 (C) 261 (D)27076. 2max of o-chlorobenzaldehyde in nm is(A) 275 (B) 265 (C) 255 (D)250Data for questions 77 and 78:In the assay of Folic acid I.P., a weighed quantity is dissolved in 0.1 M NaOH solution andsubsequently treated with Zn and HCI. The resulting product is mixed with ammoniumsulphamate, kept for 2 minutes and a reagent is added to get final coloured product whoseabsorbance is measured77. Select the product obtained when folic acid is heated with Zn + HCI(A) Benzoic acid (B) p-aminobenzoic acid(C) Glutamic acid (D) Succinic acid78. Select the reagent used for the development of colour(A) N-1-naphthyl ethylene diamine didydrochloride(B) Ninhydrin reagent(C) p-dimethylamino benzaldehyde(D) PhloroglucinolData for questions 79 and 80:Parkinsonism is a common neurological movement disorder. Signs include rigidity of skeletalmuscles, akinesia, flat facies and tremors at rest. Both L-DOPA and Carbidopa are used.79. Carbidopa is used because(A) it crosses blood brain barrier(B) it inhibits aromatic L-aminoacid decarboxylase(C) it inhibits MAO type A(D) it inhibits MAO type B80. Select the specific unwanted effect of L-DOPA(A) Dementia(B) Hypertension(C) Dyskinesia(D) ExcitotoxicityData for questions 81 and 82:The decomposition of a drug in aqueous acid solution was found to follow first order reaction.The initial concentration was found to be 0.056 M. The concentration after a period of 12hours was 4.10 x 10-2 moles/litre. The reaction rate constant is 0.02599 - h r1.
