FOOD PREPARATION TIPS AND USEFUL INFORMATION: PMP sixth edition Free Practice Exams

1. In which project management process group that the work is confirmed to be done according to the requirements? a. Monitoring & Controlling b. Executing c. Closing d. Planning Answer: c 2. In which project management process groups that approved changes are implemented? a. Planning b. Executing c. Monitoring & Controlling d. Closing Answer: b 3. In which project management process group the project charter is developed? a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Monitoring & Controlling Answer: a 4. In which project management process group the kickoff meeting is held? a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Monitoring & Controlling Answer: b 5. One of the activity that is performed in the executing phase is: a. Approve or reject changes b. Complete procurement closure c. Determine team d. Perform Quality Assurance Answer: d 6. One of the activity that is performed in Planning project management phase is: a. Develop Project Charter b. Produce Product Scope c. Perform Quality Control d. Create WBS and WBS dictionary Answer: d 7. The Activity that is not part of the Closing phase of project management is: a. Update lessons learned document b. Release resources c. Hold team building activities d. Archive records Answer: c 8. Approval or Rejection of the changes happens in which phase of the project management? a. Planning b. Monitoring & Controlling c. Closing d. Executing Answer: b 9. Planning phase involves a. Create activity list b. Create network diagram c. Hold Kickoff meeting d. All of the Above Answer: d 10. Quality control is done in which of the project management group? a. Monitoring & Controlling b. Executing c. Both Executing and Monitoring & Controlling d. None of the Above Answer: a 11. The Quality Audits are performed in which of the project management group? a. Monitoring & Controlling b. Executing c. Both Executing and Monitoring & Controlling d. None of the Above Answer: b 12. John was recognized for his work on Simpson’s project and given a cash award of $1000. Where do you think this recognition would have taken place? a. Executing b. Monitoring & Controlling c. Closing d. Executing & Closing Answer: a 13. The stakeholders should be identified as early as: a. Planning phase b. Initiating phase c. Executing phase d. Both Planning & Initiating phase Answer: b 14. David was released from the project and moved onto an another project. We can conclude that the release of David to another project would have happened in the __________ phase a. Monitoring & Controlling b. Executing c. Planning d. Closing Answer: d 15. The closing phase of a project is not complete with: a. Managing the reserves b. Request changes to the project c. Creating forecasts for the project d. Lessons learned in the project Answer: d 16. The process of dividing a large project in to different phases of the project happens in: a. Planning b. Initiating c. Both Initiating & Planning d. Executing Answer: b 17. The IT department has been entrusted with the task of determining what hardware to purchase for the project. We can safely conclude that the IT department is in the _________ phase of the project life cycle a. Planning b. Initiating c. Initiating & Planning d. Executing Answer: a 18. The following activities are performed during the closing stage of the project: a. Archive records b. Hand off completed product c. Release resources d. All of the Above Answer: d 19. The following activities are performed during the executing phase: a. Select sellers b. Conflict resolution c. Change request d. Managing reserves Answer: b 20. Historical information of previous project which can be used as a baseline for the current project is collected during: a. Planning phase b. Initiating phase c. Both Planning & Initiating phase d. None of the above Answer: b 21. The quality audits is done during__________ phase a. Executing b. Monitoring & Controlling c. Closing d. Executing and Monitoring & Controlling Answer: a 22. Budgeting and Scheduling is developed during ________phase a. Initiating b. Planning c. Both Initiating & Planning d. None of the Above Answer: b 23. Risk Identification, Risk Analysis and Risk response is done during ________phase a. Initiating b. Executing c. Monitoring & Controlling d. Planning Answer: d 24. Procurement documents is prepared during ________phase a. Initiating b. Executing c. Monitoring & Controlling d. None of the Above Answer: d 25. Project charter is developed during__________phase a. Planning b. Initiating c. Executing d. Initiating & Planning Answer: b 26. Project Manager is selected during_________phase a. Initiating b. Planning c. Initiating orPlanning d. Executing Answer: a 27. High level risks are uncovered during _______phase a. Initiating b. Planning c. Monitoring & Controlling d. Executing Answer: a 28. The roles and responsibilities for the stakeholders involved in the project is determined during a. Initiating phase b. Executing phase c. Planning phase d. Monitoring & Controlling phase Answer: c 29. The requirements for the project is finalized during _____phase a. Initiating b. Executing c. Monitoring & Controlling d. Planning Answer: d 30. Project scope statement is created during ________phase a. Initiating b. Planning c. Executing d. Both Initiating & Planning Answer: b 1. __________ are any extra amount of funds set aside to cover unforeseen risks a. Contingency Reserve b. Management Reserve c. Time Reserves d. Buffers 2. Setting up an unrealistic schedule is fault of: a. Senior Manager b. Project Manager c. Functional Manager d. Client 3. The primary objective of schedule compression is to: a. Compress Schedule by changing the Scope of the project b. Compress Schedule to Finish the project with a lower cost c. Compress Schedule without changing the Scope of the project d. Compress Schedule to satisfy the client 4. Fast tracking is a technique of schedule compression by doing critical path activities in _______ that were originally planned in ________ a. Parallel, Series b. Series, Parallel c. Vertical, Horizontal d. Horizontal, Vertical Answer: a 5. The effects of doing Fast tracking technique is: a. Rework b. Increases Risk c. More Attention to Communication d. All of the Above 6. The types of Schedule Compression: a. Fast Tracking b. Crashing c. Monte Carlo Analysis d. Fast Tracking and Crashing 7. What types of tradeoffs should be made while using crashing technique for schedule compression a. Cost b. Schedule c. Cost and Schedule d. Risk 8. What-If Scenarios Analysis can be done using: a. Fast Tracking b. Crashing c. Monte Carlo Analysis d. None of the Above 9. Resource Limited Schedule can be produced using ________ a. Monte Carlo Analysis b. Resource Leveling c. Critical Chain Method d. Crashing 10. The project schedule is shown in any one of the following formats: a. Network Diagram b. Milestone Chart c. Bar Chart d. All of the Above 10. Progress reporting and control can be shown using: a. Milestone Chart b. Bar Chart c. Network Diagram d. Smithstone Chart 11. Charts that are used for reporting to management and customer is: a. Milestone Chart b. Bar Chart c. Network Diagram d. Smithstone Chart Answer: a 12. To show interdependencies between projects we can use: a. Bar Chart b. Milestone Chart c. Network Diagram d. Smithstone Chart 13. Bar Chart is also known as: a. Milestone Chart b. Bar Chart c. Gantt Chart d. Smithstone Chart 14. Performing crashing technique for schedule compression always adds: a. Cost b. Risk c. Scope Creep d. None of the Above Answer: a 15. Fast tracking technique for schedule compression always adds: a. Cost b. Risk c. Scope Creep d. None of the Above 1. The estimated value of the work actually accomplished when calculated currently, is referred to as: a.Planned Work b.Earned Value c.Remaining Value d.Actual Cost 2.The estimated value of the work actually planned when calculated currently, is referred to as: a.Planned Work b.Earned Value c.Remaining Value d.Actual Cost 3.The ______________ tells us how much did we budget for the total project effort Estimate at completion Estimate to complete Budget at completion Variance at completion 4.The_________ forecasts the total project to cost when calculated currently a.Estimate at completion b.Estimate to complete c.Budget at completion d.Variance at completion 5.The ________ forecasts the remaining cost that we would incur from the present point of time to complete the project a.Estimate at completion b.Estimate to complete c.Budget at completion d.Variance at completion 6.The __________ forecasts that if we will be over or under our budget when calculated currently a.Estimate at completion b.Estimate to complete c.Budget at completion d.Variance at completion 7.What is the formula to calculate cost variance given the following: E = Earned Value A = Actual Cost P = Planned Value a.Cost Variance = E + A b.Cost Variance = E – A c.Cost Variance = E + P d.Cost Variance = E – P 8.What is the formula to calculate Schedule Variance given the following: E = Earned Value A = Actual Cost P = Planned Value a.Schedule Variance = E+ A b.Schedule Variance = E – A c.Schedule Variance = E + P d.Schedule Variance = E – P 9.What is the formula to calculate Cost Performance index given the following: E = Earned Value A = Actual Cost P = Planned Value a.Cost Performance Index = A/E b.Cost Performance Index = P/E c.Cost Performance Index = E/A d.Cost Performance Index = P/A 10.What is the formula to calculate Schedule Performance index given the following: E = Earned Value A = Actual Cost P = Planned Value a.Schedule Performance Index = E/P b.Schedule Performance Index = P/E c.Schedule Performance Index = E/A d.Schedule Performance Index = P/A 11.What is the formula to calculate Variance at completion given the following: E = Earned Value A = Actual Cost P = Planned Value BAC = Budget at Completion EAC = Estimate at Completion a.Variance at completion = BAC+ EAC b.Variance at completion = BAC+ A c.Variance at completion = BAC – EAC d.Variance at completion = BAC – A 12.What is the formula to calculate Estimate to complete given the following: E = Earned Value A = Actual Cost P = Planned Value BAC = Budget at Completion EAC = Estimate at Completion a.Estimate to complete = EAC - A b.Estimate to complete = BAC+ A c.Estimate to complete = BAC – A d.Estimate to complete = EAC + A 13.What is the formula to calculate To complete Performance Index given the following: E = Earned Value A = Actual Cost P = Planned Value BAC = Budget at Completion EAC = Estimate at Completion a.Complete Performance Index =(BAC + A)/(BAC + E) b.To Complete Performance Index =(BAC - E)/(BAC - A) c.To Complete Performance Index =(BAC - A)/(BAC - E) d.To Complete Performance Index =(BAC + E)/(BAC + A) 14.Planned Value may also be referred to: a.Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled b.Budgeted Cost of Work Performed c.Actual Cost of Work Performed d.None of the Above 15.Earned Value may also be referred to: a.Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled b.Budgeted Cost of Work Performed c.Actual Cost of Work Performed d.None of the Above 16.Actual Cost may also be referred to: a.Budgeted Cost of Work Scheduled b.Budgeted Cost of Work Performed c.Actual Cost of Work Performed d.None of the Above 1. Calculate the cost variance using the following data and determine if it is over budget or under budget? Earned Value = $1000 Planned Value = $2000 Actual Cost = $500 a. 500, Under Budget b. -500, Over Budget c. 1500, Over Budget d. -1500, Over Budget 2. Calculate the schedule variance using the following data and determine if it the work is behind schedule or ahead of schedule? Earned Value = 1000 Planned Value = 2000 Actual Cost = 500 a. -500, Behind Schedule b. 500, Ahead of Schedule c. 1000, Ahead of Schedule d. -1000, Behind Schedule 3. Calculate the Cost Performance Index with the following data: Earned Value = 1000 Planned Value = 2000 Actual Cost = 500 a. 4 b. 0.5 c. 2 d. Cannot be determined with the data given 4. Calculate the Schedule Performance Index with the following data: Earned Value = 1000 Planned Value = 2000 Actual Cost = 500 a. 4 b. 0.5 c. 2 d. Cannot be determined with the data given 5. Calculate the To Complete Performance Index with the following data: Earned Value = 1000 Planned Value = 2000 Actual Cost = 500 Budget at Completion = 4000 a. 0.86 b. 1.17 c. 0.57 d. 1.75 6. Calculate the Variance at Completion with the following data: Earned Value = 1000 Planned Value = 2000 Actual Cost = 500 Budget at Completion = 4000 Estimate at Completion = 2000 a. -2000 b. 3500 c. -3500 d. 2000 7.Calculate the Estimate at Completion when the original estimate is fundamentally flawed with the data given below: Earned Value = 1000 Planned Value = 2000 Actual Cost = 500 Budget at Completion = 4000 Estimate to Complete = 1000 a. 1500 b. 2500 c. -500 d. -1500 8. Calculate the Actual Cost with the following data: Earned Value = 1000 Cost Variance = 500 Schedule Variance = 3000 a. 1500 b. 500 c. 3500 d. 2500 9. Calculate the Planned Cost with the following data: Earned Value = 1000 Cost Variance = 500 Schedule Variance = 3000 a. -2000 b. 4000 c. 500 d. 1500 10. Calculate the Actual Cost with the following data: Earned Value = 1000 Cost Performance Index = 5 Schedule Performance Index = 2 a. 200 b. 500 c. 0.02 d. 0.05 11. Calculate the Planned Cost with the following data: Earned Value = 1000 Cost Performance Index = 5 Schedule Performance Index = 2 a. 200 b. 500 c. 0.02 d. 0.05 12. If the Cost Variance of a project is negative and theSchedule Variance is positive then the project is said to be: a. Under Budget and Ahead of Schedule b. Under Budget and Behind Schedule c. Over Budget and Ahead of Schedule d. Over Budget and Behind Schedule 13. If the project manager should answer to his senior management at what rate of work that we should work so that we finish the remaining work in order to stay within budget then the project manager must look at: a. Estimate at Completion b. Estimate to Complete c. Variance at Completion d. To Complete Performance Index 14. The disadvantage of Bottom up Estimating: a. Team might pad up estimates b. Bottom up Estimating is more accurate and leads to more friction within the team c. It doesn't get the buy in from the team d. It is less accurate than analogous estimating 15. The advantages of analogous estimating: a. The overall project costs can be capped b. It is the more accurate way of estimating than botttom up estimating c. People who are new to estimating can do analogous estimating easily d. None of the Above 1. The organization where project is done within a single department and where information , when needed is communicated through the heads of the department is a: a. Matrix Organization b. Projectized Organization c. Functional Organization d. None of the Above Answer: c 2. The organization where the project manager has absolute power and all the activities of the company are organized as project is a: a. Matrix Organization b. Projectized Organization c. Functional Organization d. None of the Above Answer: b 3. The organization where team members report to both functional manager as well as project manager is a: a. Matrix Organization b. Projectized Organization c. Functional Organization d. None of the Above Answer: a 4. A tight matrix closely resembles: a. Strong Matrix b. Weak Matrix c. Balanced Matrix d. None of the Above Answer: d 5. The difference between project coordinator and project expeditor is: a. Project Expeditor has more powers than project coordinator b. Project Expeditor has same powers as project coordinator c. Project Coordinator has more powers than project expeditor d. None of the Above Answer: c 6. The disadvantage of a functional organization is: a. There is a definite career path in project management b. People place less emphasis on functional specialty c. Project Manager has little or no authority d. None of the Above Answer: c 7. The disadvantage of a projectized organization is: a. Project Manager has absolute power to the detriment of the project b. There is no effective communication in the project c. People are not loyal to the project d. Once a project is completed people have no home(department) to go back Answer: d 8. The disadvantages of Matrix Organization is: a. Extra administration is required b. Maximum utilization of scarce resources c. Better coordination d. Visible project objectives Answer: a 9. Project Management Process Includes Only a. Initiating, Planning, Closing b. Initiating, Executing, Monitoring & Controlling c. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Controlling, Closing d. Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Controlling, Closing Answer: c 10. Product Life Cycle lasts: a. Conception of a project to its successful completion b. Conception of a product to its successful launch to the marketplace c. Conception of a product to its profitability d. Conception of a new product to its withdrawal Answer: d 11. One of the advantages of a functional organization is: a. Functional Manager has little control of his resources b. Team members report to one supervisor c. Project Manager has more control of his resources d. None of the Above Answer: b 12. The advantages of projectized organization are: a. Project is organized in an efficient manner b. Project members are loyal to the project c. There is very good communication between project members d. All of the Above Answer: d style="display:inline-block;width:336px;height:280px" data-ad-client="ca-pub-3501587843187331" data-ad-slot="3743413455"> 13. In strong matrix organization power rests with a. Functional Manager only b. Project and Functional Manger c. Project Manager d. None of the Above Answer: c 14. In weak matrix organization power rests with a. Functional Manager only b. Project and Functional Manger c. Project Manager d. None of the Above Answer: a 15. In a balanced matrix organization power rests with a. Functional Manager only b. Shared between Project and Functional Manger c. Project Manager d. None of the Above Answer: b 1. Communications should take place a. Internally and externally to the project team b. Vertically in the project team c. Horizontally in the project team d. All of the Above 2. Project Manager Tim gave an overview presentation of the project he is going to work to the senior management. What kind of communication type Tim is following? a. Informal Verbal b. Formal Written c. Formal Verbal d. Informal Written 3. Peter sent a handwritten note to one of his team member in the project on a particular issue they are working on. What kind of communication type Peter is following? a. Informal Verbal b. Formal Written c. Formal Verbal d. Informal Written 4. Simon sent a flow chart that he has prepared proposing a solution for one of the complex problem. What kind of communication type Peter is following? a. Informal Verbal b. Formal Written c. Formal Verbal d. Informal Written 5. The project team had a regular meeting in the conference room to discuss about the project progress. What kind of communication the project team is having? a. Informal Verbal b. Formal Written c. Formal Verbal d. Informal Written 6. John changed the tone of his voice to communicate to the project team what his feelings about the delayed project. What kind of communication John is following? a. Non verbal b. Paralingual c. Formal Written d. None of the Above 7. The company just sent a company wide memo regarding the financial status of the company. What kind of communication method the company is following in this case? a. Push Communication b. Pull Communication c. Interactive Communication d. Verbal Communication 8. The project manager put all the project related documents in a centralized location so that the project team can grab the documents that are necessary for each individual. What kind of communication method the project manager is following in this case? a. Push Communication b. Pull Communication c. Interactive Communication d. Verbal Communication 9. The project manager scheduled a meeting with his project team. What kind of communication method the project manager should follow in his meeting to have an effective outcome of the meeting for the problems to be discussed in the meeting? a. Push Communication b. Pull Communication c. Interactive Communication d. Verbal Communication 10. What is the formula to calculate communication channels where N is the number of people involved in the communication channel? a. [N(N+1)]/2 b. [N(N+2)]/2 c. [N(N-1)]/2 d. [N(N-2)]/2 11. Calculate the number of communication channels in a project team of 4 including the project manager? a. 10 b. 12 c. 6 d. 4 12. All are examples of communication blockers EXCEPT: a. Noisy surroundings b. Language c. Hostility d. Cordial Relationship 13. A report that examines project result over time is a: a. Status Report b. Progress Report c. Trend Report d. Forecasting Report 14. A report that examines what has been accomplished is a: a. Status Report b. Progress Report c. Trend Report d. Forecasting Report 15. A report that predicts future project status and performance is a: a. Status Report b. Progress Report c. Trend Report d. Forecasting Report 16. A report that reports the current status of the project with regards performance measurement baselines is a: a. Status Report b. Variance Report c. Progress Report d. Forecasting Report 17. A report that compares an actual result that has been accomplished so far to project baselines is a: a. Trend Report b. Variance Report c. Earned Value Report d. Lessons Learned Documentation 18. A report that integrates scope, cost and schedule measures to assess project performance is a: a. Trend Report b. Variance Report c. Earned Value Report d. Lessons Learned Documentation 19. A report that uses the performance of past projects which can be used for the current project is a: a. Trend Report b. Variance Report c. Earned Value Report d. Lessons Learned Documentation 1. Conflict resolution technique that leads to win-win situation for all parties involved is: a. Avoidance b. Accommodating c. Compromising d. Confronting 2. Conflict resolution technique that leads to lose-lose situation for all parties involved is: a. Avoidance b. Accommodating c. Compromising d. Confronting 3. Which of the following conflict resolution technique is the BEST choice for resolving conflicts? a. Compromising b. Confronting c. Avoidance d. Collaborating 4. Which of the following conflict resolution technique is the LEAST choice for resolving conflicts? a. Compromising b. Confronting c. Avoidance d. Collaborating 5. Project Manager said to his team “He wants to get to the root cause of the problem so that he can find the real solution which will help the project long term”. What kind of problem solving techniques the project manager is using? a. Compromising b. Confronting c. Avoidance d. Collaborating 6. After much deliberation with his project team the project manager finally decides to postpone the decision of implementing a solution that had a varied opinion between various stakeholders in his project. a. Compromising b. Confronting c. Avoidance d. Collaborating 7. The project manager, although takes opinions from various stakeholders in his project always want to push his point of view as final solution to a problem. What kind of conflict resolution techniques the project manager is following? a. Confronting b. Accommodating c. Forcing d. Collaborating 8. The project manager during a project team meeting emphasized the agreement to a common problem between stakeholders instead of the difference of opinion between stakeholders so that the project team meeting goes smoothly. What kind of conflict resolution techniques the project manager is using? a. Confronting b. Accommodating c. Forcing d. Collaborating 9. The project manager wants to incorporate all the ideas of the stakeholders so that the project can get proper funding by consensus. What kind of conflict resolution techniques the project manager is following? a. Confronting b. Accommodating c. Forcing d. Collaborating 10. Tim was given a premiere parking space in front of the company because of his contribution to the company success. This is an example of: a. Fringe Benefits b. Perquisites c. Motivational Theory d. None of the Above 11. Company A gives all its employees a monthly amount of $50 for internet expenses. This is an example of: a. Fringe Benefits b. Perquisites c. Motivational Theory d. None of the Above 12. Which theory deals with hygiene factors and motivating agents: a. Motivational Theory b. McGregors’s Theory of X and Y c. Maslow Hierarchy of Needs d. Hezberg’s Theory 13. Which theory show how people of motivated to go higher up the ladder until the basics of security, money is fulfilled. a. Motivational Theory b. McGregor’s Theory of X and Y c. Maslow Hierarchy of Needs d. Hezberg’s Theory 14. The stage where a team is disbanded after project objectives have been accomplished is: a. Performing b. Norming c. Adjourning d. Disbanding 15. All of the following are examples of Hygiene factors EXCEPT: a. Salary b. Security c. Status d. Recognition 1. Which of the following procurement statement of work conveys what work needs to be done in the project? a. Peformance procurement statement of work b. Functional procurement statement of work c. Design procurement statement of work d. None of the Above 2. Which of the following procurement statement of work conveys the end of purpose or result and doesn’t convey the specific procedures involved in the project? a. Performance procurement statement of work b. Functional procurement statement of work c. Design procurement statement of work d. None of the Above 3. Which of the following procurement statement of work conveys what the fina product is able to accomplish? a. Performance procurement statement of work b. Functional procurement statement of work c. Design procurement statement of work d. None of the Above 4. In a Fixed price contract which party has the least amount of risk? a. Seller b. Buyer c. Both Buyer and Seller d. Both Buyer and Seller has more risk 5. In a Cost reimbursable contact which party has the least amount of risk? a. Seller b. Buyer c. Both Buyer and Seller d. Both Buyer and Seller has more risk 6. Unit Price contract is also referred to: a. Fixed Price Contract b. Cost Reimbursable Contract c. Time & Material Contract d. Lump Sum Contract 7. The contract in which a fixed price is assured and also the profit based on the seller meeting specified performance criteria is a _________ a. Fixed Price Economic Price Adjustment contract b. Fixed Price Award Fee contract c. Fixed Price Incentive Fee contract d. Purchase Order 8. The contract in which a fixed price is assured and also a bonus is paid based on performance is a ______________ a. Fixed Price Economic Adjustment contract b. Fixed Price Award Fee contract c. Fixed Price Incentive Fee contract d. Purchase Order 9. The contract which is a fixed price contract but which is adjusted based on the future market prices is a _____________ a. Fixed Price Economic Adjustment contract b. Fixed Price Award Fee contract c. Fixed Price Incentive Fee contract d. Purchase Order 10. The contract which is signed by one party and is used for commodity procurements is a ________ a. Fixed Price Economic Adjustment contract b. Fixed Price Award Fee contract c. Fixed Price Incentive Fee contract d. Purchase Order 11. A contract in which the seller receives no profit is a ____________ a. Cost contract b. Cost Plus Fee contract c. Cost Plus Incentive Fee contract d. Cost Plus Award Fee contract 12. A contract in which the seller is paid the actual cost plus a fee based on whether specific performance objectives are met is a ________________ a. Cost contract b. Cost Plus Fee contract c. Cost Plus Fixed Fee contract d. Cost Plus Incentive Fee contract 13. A contract in which the buyer pays for all the cost incurred in the project plus a percentage of the cost as a fee for doing the work is a _____________ a. Cost Contract b. Cost Plus Fee contract c. Cost Plus Fixed Fee contract d. Cost Plus Incentive Fee contract 14. A contract in which the buyer pays for all the cost incurred in the project plus a fixed fee before the work begins is a __________ a. Cost Contract b. Cost Plus Fee contract c. Cost Plus Fixed Fee contract d. Cost Plus Incentive Fee contract 15. A contract in which the buyer pays a fixed price for the work done and also a bonus based on performance is a ____________ a. Const Plus Award Fee contract b. Cost Plus Fee contract c. Cost Plus Fixed Fee contract d. Cost Plus Incentive Fee contract 1. Delphi Technique is used during a. Defining Scope of a Project b. Creating Work Breakdown Structure c. Creating Project Scope Statement d. Collecting Requirements for the Project Answer: d 2. When there are competing requirements for a project what should the project manager do? a. Use conflict resolution technique b. Looks for options like Schedule compression, brainstorming c. Escalate the Issue when correct solution cannot be arrived at d. Either one of the above or can follow All of the Above Answer: d 3. The Define Scope process uses the information collected during: a. Collect Requirements Process b. Project Charter c. Collect Requirements Process, Project Charter, any info related to risks, assumptions, constraints for the project d. None of the Above Answer: c 4. What is prepared at the end of Defining the scope of the project a. Work Breakdown Structure b. Project Scope Statement c. Product Scope Statement d. Project Charter Answer: b 5. The Work Breakdown Structure is created with the help of: a. Project Manager b. Product Manager c. Program Manager d. Entire Team Answer: d 6. The higher level of Work Breakdown Structure is used to estimate costs called the: a. Internal Account b. Control Account c. Project Account d. None of the Above Answer: b 7. The process of dividing Work Packages into activities is done during: a. Define Activities Phase b. Create Work breakdown structure phase c. Define Scope Phase d. Define Work breakdown Structure phase Answer: a 8. The output of Create Work Breakdown Structure process is: a. Scheduling Activities b. Control Account c. Work Packages d. Work breakdown Structure Dictionary Answer: d 9. During _________ phase of the project the QA department checks if the product conforms to the requirements a. Perform Quality Control b. Perform User Acceptance Testing c. Verify Scope d. None of the Above Answer: a 10. During _________ phase of the project the customer check and may or may not accept the deliverables a. Perform Quality Control b. Perform User Acceptance Testing c. Verify Scope d. None of the Above Answer: c 11. The WBS is deliverable oriented and involves a. Product Scope b. Project Scope c. Project Management Efforts d. Complete Scope of the Project Answer: d 12. Creating a Work Breakdown Structure will help: a. In getting approval from senior Management b. In getting team and other stakeholders buy in c. In getting approval from the Customer d. In getting approval from the Sponsor of the project Answer: b 13. A work breakdown structure is a. Deliverable Oriented b. Action Oriented c. Project Oriented d. None of the Above Answer: a 14. Scope Baseline for the Project consists of: a. Project Scope Statement b. Project Scope Statement, WBS, WBS dictionary c. WBS d. WBS dictionary Answer: b 15. The Control Scope process involves: a. Managing Scope Baseline Changes b. Measuring Product and Project Scope Performance and managing Scope Baseline Changes c. Both a and b d. None of the Above Answer: c