1) Which remote replication method is most affected by the distance between source and target?
Synchronous
2) Which component in an EMC Symmetrix Array provides physical connectivity to hosts?
Front-end adapter
3) You have five disks in a RAID 0 set, and have assigned a stripe depth of 128 blocks (64 kB).What is the STRIPE size (kB)?
320
4) A five disk set is configured as RAID 5. Each disk has a Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) of 500,000 hours. What is the MTBF of the set?
100,000 hours
5) What are the three key data center management activities that are interdependent?
Provisioning, Monitoring, Reporting
6) Data is being replicated from site A to site B using disk buffering to create extended distance consistent point in time copies every hour. In the event of a site failure at A, what is the maximum amount of data that will be missing at site B?
2 hours
7) What is the most likely cause when there are no devices available to the HOST even though the HBAs are logged into the FA?
No Symmasking
8) What is a key requirement of Content Addressed Storage?
Longevity
9) What are Virtual DataMovers [VDMs]?
They are dedicated CIFS servers
10) In a Centera, what is the minimum node configuration of Generation 4 Hardware?
4
11) What is use of WINS?
Resolves UNC names to IP address
12) Give details about Celerra SRDF/A :-
Is implemented over campus distances only , Is bi-directional , Supports an automatic failover and failback process
13) In a Centera, how many internal switches are in a two cube Generation 4 cabinet?
4
14) Which IP address is used to discover Domain ID 1 from SAN Manager?
192.168.24.28
15) What would resolve a conflict where the physical Switch/Director recognized a port login, while SAN Manager does not report it as logged in?
Discover the switch
16) What is default behavior of B-Series Switch/Director?
Switch acts like a HUB. All ports have access to each other
17) What is the command for modifying the Domain ID of a B_Series Switch/Director?
configure
18) What is the CLI command for backing up a B-series Switch/Director configuration?
configupload
19) Which parameters must be the same in switches merged into one fabric?
R_A_TOV, E_D_TOV
20) What occurs when zoning is disabled in a B-Series fabric?
All ports see each other
21) How many faulty readings must occur for B-Series Internet explorer view to show a critical status?
3
22) Which tool can be used to manage zoning in a B-Series Fabric?
Fabric Manager
23) Which view in B-Series Web Tool provides the fastest way to determine if an HBA has performed A fabric login?
Name Server
24) Which HP-UX command can be used to discover newly added LUNs?
ioscan -fnc dik
25) Which file extension is used when saving a data collection from M-series Switch/Directors?
zip
26) Give details on ControlCenter Storage pools:-
Groups of storage devices that SPS will search for available storage
27) What are valid Fabric topologies?
Mesh, Core-Edge
28) What is a zoneset?
A collection of zones
29) Which EMC Symmetrix connectivity options cannot be used with mainframe hosts?
Fibre Channel, SCSI
30) Which EMC Symmetrix connectivity options can be used with mainframe hosts?
FICON,ESCON
31) What are ControlCenter Storage policies in EMC?
Rules containing all of the general criteria for storage allocation requests
32) Which of the following ControlCenter application can you use to identify currently
allocated and utilized storage?
StorageScope
33) What is the purpose of the ControlCenter Console?
It allows environment management
34) How are disks accessed by UNIX hosts?
Using device special files
35) Give details on iSCSI naming conventions :-
iQN, EUI
36) How does EMC TimeFinder/Snap save disk space while providing full access to the original data on the snapshot copy?
It does so by creating pointers to the original data
37) What is a feature of both EMC TimeFinder/Mirror and TimeFinder/Mirror Clone?
Identical storage capacity as the Source device
38) Does EMC TimeFinder/Mirror Clone use copy on access?
Yes
39) What does Visual storage view in EMC controlcenter console display?
EMC ControlCenter Console displays Front End Directors, Disk Directors, and all the devices for a Symmetrix array
40) When is a data accessible on snap copy in EMC TimeFinder/Snap?
Data is accessible on the Snap copy immediately after the Snap session is initiated
41) What is the difference between EMC NSXXXG and the NSXXX?
NSXXXG allows the sharing of back-end storage with other hosts
42) How does EMC TimeFinder/Snap save disk space while providing full access to the original
data on the snapshot copy?
It creates pointers to the original data
43) How is free space in the EMC CLARiiON write cache maintained?
The cache is flushed to the drives during I/O bursts and only the least-recently used pages are flushed
44) Which of the following recovery methods is used after a EMC Data Mover failover?
Manual recovery
45) What does NDMP represent ?
Network Data Management Protocol
46) Is write intent lo mandate while using EMC Synchronous MirrorView?
No. It is optional
47) Which protocol uses TCP/IP to tunnel Fibre Channel frames?
FCIP
48) What is the correct sequence for starting a ControlCenter component?
Repository, Server, Store
49) Which EMC Symmetrix system uses a two bus architecture that is referred to as an "X" and a "Y" bus?
Symmetrix 4.8
50) What does EMC SRDF/Automated Replication provide?
SRDF/Automated Replication provides a copy of the data on the Target device, which will be several minutes to hours behind the Source
51) Which series of switches can you use EMC Connectrix Manager to manage?
M-Series
52) What is necessary for using EMC control center Automatic Resource Strong provisioning Series?
Storage pools and storage policies
53) What is characteristic of Network Attached Storage (NAS)?
Clients perform file level I/O to access data on a NAS device
54) Which load balancing policy available in Power Path relates to Path fail over only?
Request
55) In Control Center, what does the EMC Time Finder/ SDRF QoS Task Bar do?
Performance Management
